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Free SOA-C03 practice test: 30 questions with answers
30 original questions for AWS Certified CloudOps Engineer - Associate, drawn from every topic area. Answer each one to see whether you got it right and why. No sign-up.
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All 30 SOA-C03 questions with answers
The same questions as the test above, grouped by exam topic. Open any question to see the answer and explanation.
Monitoring, Logging, and Remediation (5 questions)
Question 1
An operations team wants an alarm when an EC2 instance's CPU stays above 80 percent for 15 minutes, and the alarm should notify an on-call SNS topic. Which configuration meets this with the least effort?
- AA CloudWatch alarm on the CPUUtilization metric with a period and evaluation periods that cover 15 minutes, with an SNS action
- BA CloudTrail trail that emails the on-call team for each management API call logged through an SNS topic
- CAn AWS Config rule that checks each instance type against an approved list and flags noncompliant resources
- DA Systems Manager Parameter Store SecureString entry holding the threshold value, encrypted with a KMS key
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Correct answer: AA CloudWatch alarm evaluates the CPUUtilization metric over the configured periods and triggers an SNS action when the threshold is breached. CloudTrail records API activity, Config checks configuration state, and Parameter Store holds values but does not evaluate metrics.
Question 2
An application writes logs to files on EC2 instances in an Auto Scaling group. The team needs those logs searchable centrally, and logs must survive instance termination. Which approach should be used?
- AInstall the CloudWatch agent to ship log files to CloudWatch Logs log groups
- BKeep the logs on the instance root volume and SSH in to read them
- CUse the EC2 serial console to view boot messages and system log output on demand for triage
- DEmail the logs to the team from a cron job that runs nightly and attaches each rotated file
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Correct answer: AThe CloudWatch agent streams log files to CloudWatch Logs, where they persist after an instance terminates and can be searched with Logs Insights. Local storage is lost when instances are replaced, and the serial console is for troubleshooting boot issues.
Question 3
A CloudOps engineer must respond automatically when an EC2 instance fails its status check, by recovering the instance. Which feature provides this?
- AA CloudTrail event filter that restarts the instance by email
- BA manual reboot in the console each morning
- CA CloudWatch alarm with an EC2 recover action
- DAn S3 lifecycle rule on the AMI
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Correct answer: CA CloudWatch alarm on the instance status check can trigger the EC2 recover action, which moves the instance to healthy hardware while keeping its ID and IP. Email filters and manual steps are not automated recovery, and lifecycle rules do not act on running instances.
Question 4
A team wants a runbook to run automatically when AWS Config detects that an S3 bucket has public access enabled, and the runbook must turn that setting off. Which feature combination provides this?
- AA manual Config report reviewed by an analyst each Friday
- BA CloudFormation drift check that reports properties with no remediation action
- CAn IAM policy that denies bucket configuration changes for every user in the account
- DAWS Config remediation action that invokes an SSM Automation runbook
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Correct answer: DAWS Config can trigger a remediation action that runs an Systems Manager Automation document, which can apply the fix when a rule is non-compliant. Reports and drift checks do not remediate, and a blanket IAM deny does not correct the bucket setting.
Question 5
An application's error rate rises after a deployment. The team wants to find the failing requests quickly and see which backend call caused each error. Which service gives per-request traces across the application?
- AAmazon Route 53 query logs
- BAWS X-Ray
- CAWS Budgets
- DAmazon Macie
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Correct answer: BAWS X-Ray traces requests across services and shows segments and subsegments, so the failing downstream call can be identified. Route 53 logs DNS queries, Budgets tracks cost, and Macie discovers sensitive data.
Deployment, Provisioning, and Automation (5 questions)
Question 6
A team manages its VPC, subnets and security groups in CloudFormation. Someone changed a security group rule in the console. The team wants to find all resources that differ from the template. Which action should they take?
- ARun CloudFormation drift detection on the stack
- BDelete and recreate the entire stack hourly
- CCheck the billing dashboard for cost changes
- DEnable S3 Object Lock on the templates
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Correct answer: ADrift detection compares the deployed resources to the template and lists properties that were changed outside it. Recreating the stack every hour is disruptive, and Object Lock and billing views do not compare resource state.
Question 7
A CloudOps team must patch 200 EC2 instances across three environments on a fixed weekly window without SSH access. Which service should orchestrate the patching?
- AAmazon Connect contact flows for routing calls
- BAWS Snowball Edge shipment for bulk transfer of archived files
- CAWS Systems Manager Patch Manager with a maintenance window
- DAmazon WorkSpaces desktop rebuilds for virtual users
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Correct answer: CPatch Manager applies patch baselines through the SSM agent on managed instances, and maintenance windows schedule the work without SSH. The other services do not patch EC2 instances.
Question 8
A deployment must roll out a new AMI to an Auto Scaling group gradually, keeping most instances in service and rolling back automatically if health checks fail. Which feature supports this?
- ADeleting the group and creating a new one with a fresh launch template and no traffic shifting
- BInstance refresh with a minimum healthy percentage and a rollback on failure
- CStopping every running instance during the rollout so the new AMI applies at once
- DChanging the AMI by hand on each instance and updating the launch template afterward
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Correct answer: BInstance refresh replaces instances in batches while keeping a minimum healthy percentage in service, and it can roll back when health checks fail. Recreating the group causes downtime, manual changes are inconsistent, and stopping everything is an outage.
Question 9
An operations team wants to restrict which EC2 instance types can be launched in a development account, and wants this enforced even if an administrator tries to launch a disallowed type. Which mechanism enforces it?
- AA tag on each instance with the word disallowed for its instance type
- BA CloudWatch dashboard that warns the team when a disallowed type is launched
- CAn AWS Organizations service control policy that denies the disallowed instance types
- DA README file in the repository that lists approved instance types for dev
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Correct answer: CA service control policy sets the maximum permissions for accounts in the organization, so a deny applies even to administrators in those accounts. Dashboards, tags and documentation do not block launches.
Question 10
A CloudOps team wants infrastructure changes to be reviewed and applied consistently across accounts. Which two practices support this? (Choose two.)
- AUse CloudFormation StackSets to deploy the same template to multiple accounts and Regions
- BMake changes directly in the console in each account
- CKeep the only copy of each template on an engineer's laptop
- DStore templates in version control and deploy them through a pipeline with approvals
- EDisable change sets to make deployments faster
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Correct answer: A, DVersion control with a pipeline and approvals makes changes reviewable and repeatable, and StackSets applies the same template across accounts and Regions. Console changes, laptop-only templates and disabling change sets all reduce consistency and review.
Security and Compliance (5 questions)
Question 11
An auditor asks for proof that every security group in an account complies with a rule that forbids inbound SSH from 0.0.0.0/0. Which service provides continuous evaluation with a compliance history?
- AAWS Config managed rule for restricted SSH with the compliance timeline
- BAWS Cost and Usage Report with tags for monthly allocation
- CAmazon Polly text-to-speech service for narrating release notes
- DAmazon Forecast time-series model for future web demand
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Correct answer: AAWS Config evaluates resources against rules, including a managed restricted SSH rule, and keeps a compliance timeline for audits. The other services do not evaluate security group configuration.
Question 12
An IAM role used by an EC2 application must have only the S3 permissions it uses. The team reviews the role and finds broad permissions unused for 90 days. Which feature helps identify the unused permissions?
- AAWS Shield Advanced plan with DDoS response team support
- BAmazon Inspector network reachability findings for EC2
- CAWS Global Accelerator for static anycast IP routing
- DIAM Access Analyzer policy generation from CloudTrail activity
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Correct answer: DIAM Access Analyzer can generate a least-privilege policy based on the access activity recorded in CloudTrail. Shield, Inspector and Global Accelerator do not analyze IAM permissions usage.
Question 13
Developers need to connect to private EC2 instances without opening inbound SSH ports to the internet. Access must be logged centrally. Which approach meets this?
- AOpen port 22 to 0.0.0.0/0 in the security group and rely on password logins for admins
- BGive every developer the root password of the instance stored in a shared team document
- CUse AWS Systems Manager Session Manager with the SSM agent and IAM permissions
- DUse a public Elastic IP and a shared PEM key file kept on a laptop and emailed to the team
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Correct answer: CSession Manager opens shells through the SSM agent without inbound ports, controls access with IAM, and can log sessions. Open ports, shared passwords and shared key files all violate the requirement.
Question 14
A security team must protect an S3 bucket from accidental public exposure and must be able to see when its policy changes. Which two actions help? (Choose two.)
- AMake the bucket public and monitor the access logs weekly
- BShare the bucket policy by email to the whole company
- CDelete the bucket's logging configuration
- DTurn on CloudTrail data events for the bucket and alert on policy changes
- EEnable S3 Block Public Access at the account or bucket level
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Correct answer: D, EBlock Public Access prevents public grants regardless of policy or ACL, and CloudTrail records changes to the bucket configuration so alerts can be raised. Making the bucket public, emailing policies and deleting logging all weaken control.
Question 15
An application on EC2 needs to read objects from a single S3 bucket. The security team wants no long-term access keys on the instance. Which configuration meets this?
- AA shared root account password stored in a text file on the EC2 instance's home directory
- BA bucket policy that allows everyone to read and list objects online
- CAn IAM role attached to the instance profile with a policy limited to that bucket
- DAn access key with secret stored in the user data script that bootstraps the application on launch
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Correct answer: CAn instance profile role provides temporary credentials automatically, and a policy limited to one bucket enforces least privilege. Keys in user data are exposed, public access is too broad, and shared root passwords are unsafe.
Reliability and Business Continuity (5 questions)
Question 16
A production database must survive the loss of an Availability Zone with minimal downtime and no manual action. Which RDS configuration meets this?
- AA single-AZ instance with weekly automated snapshots that are restored into a new Availability Zone after an outage
- BA Multi-AZ deployment, which keeps a synchronous standby in another AZ and fails over automatically
- CA read replica in the same Availability Zone that an engineer promotes manually after the primary fails and the team confirms
- DA larger instance class with more vCPU and memory running in one Availability Zone
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Correct answer: BA Multi-AZ deployment maintains a synchronous standby in another AZ and fails over automatically during an AZ outage. Snapshots need restoration time, a manual promotion adds delay, and a bigger instance does not protect against an AZ failure.
Question 17
An Auto Scaling group runs web servers behind an Application Load Balancer. Instances that fail the load balancer health check should be replaced automatically. Which setting is required?
- ADisable health checks so instances are not replaced, leaving unhealthy ones in service
- BSet the Auto Scaling group health check type to ELB in addition to EC2
- CUse a larger instance size with more RAM for each web server
- DAttach a static Elastic IP to each instance in the group
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Correct answer: BSetting the health check type to ELB makes Auto Scaling replace instances that the load balancer marks unhealthy, not only those failing EC2 status checks. Disabling checks removes replacement, and instance size or Elastic IPs do not trigger replacement.
Question 18
A company must restore an EBS volume to a state from 3 days ago after accidental deletion of data. Which feature enables this?
- AEBS snapshots taken on a schedule with AWS Backup or Data Lifecycle Manager
- BA CloudWatch dashboard widget with the file list of the volume
- CDeleting and recreating the volume from an empty disk in place
- DInstance store volumes attached to the instance for fast local temporary scratch space
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Correct answer: AScheduled EBS snapshots provide point-in-time copies that can be used to create a new volume with the earlier data. Instance store is ephemeral, recreating a volume gives an empty disk, and dashboards do not hold data.
Question 19
A stateful application must recover within 15 minutes in another Region if the primary Region fails. Data must be copied continuously. Which AWS service fits the backup and recovery need best?
- AAn Amazon Glacier vault with a 5-year retrieval delay and a manual copy of the backup set
- BAn Amazon S3 bucket holding a single manual upload of the database dump once per month
- CA single local disk in one Availability Zone with nightly tar archives written to it
- DAWS Backup with cross-Region copy rules and a scheduled restore runbook
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Correct answer: DAWS Backup can copy recovery points to another Region on a schedule, and a tested restore runbook supports recovery within the target time. Monthly uploads and single-AZ disks do not protect against Regional failure, and a long retrieval delay conflicts with the 15-minute objective.
Question 20
An application uses an Auto Scaling group across three Availability Zones. Which two settings improve availability during an AZ outage? (Choose two.)
- ASpread the group across at least two or three subnets in different Availability Zones
- BPlace all instances in a single subnet for lower latency
- CSet the minimum capacity to zero so the group can shrink
- DUse a launch template with an instance type available in all AZs
- EDisable health checks to avoid false positives
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Correct answer: A, DSpreading the group across subnets in several Availability Zones lets capacity continue in healthy zones, and choosing an instance type available in every AZ avoids launch failures during rebalancing. A single subnet, zero minimum capacity and disabled health checks each weaken availability.
Networking and Content Delivery (5 questions)
Question 21
Instances in a private subnet must download operating system updates from the internet, but the internet must not be able to start connections to the instances. Which component provides this?
- AA public IP on each instance with inbound SSH ports open
- BAn internet gateway linked to the private subnet route table
- CA VPC peering connection to a gateway that reaches the internet
- DA NAT gateway in a public subnet with a route from the private subnet
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Correct answer: DA NAT gateway in a public subnet lets private instances initiate outbound connections while blocking unsolicited inbound traffic. An internet gateway on a private route table would expose the instances, and peering does not reach the internet.
Question 22
A web application in one Region is slow for users in another continent. Static and dynamic content must be served from edge locations with caching and TLS termination. Which service should the team use?
- AAWS Direct Connect
- BAmazon CloudFront
- CAmazon EFS
- DAWS Snowcone
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Correct answer: BCloudFront is a content delivery network that caches content at edge locations and terminates TLS close to users. Direct Connect is a private network link, EFS is file storage, and Snowcone is a portable device.
Question 23
Target instances behind an Application Load Balancer show intermittent 504 errors. The team wants to see which requests timed out and from which client IPs. Which log source should be enabled?
- AVPC Flow Logs for the subnet of the instances only
- BCloudTrail management events
- CALB access logs delivered to an S3 bucket
- DAWS Budgets alerts
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Correct answer: CALB access logs record each request with the client IP, target status and processing times, which shows timeouts. VPC Flow Logs show network flows without HTTP detail, CloudTrail records API calls, and Budgets tracks cost.
Question 24
A private subnet needs DNS names inside the VPC to resolve for private RDS endpoints, and the team wants the resolution to work from every subnet. Which setting must be enabled?
- APublic IP auto-assign on the subnet only
- BDNS resolution and DNS hostnames on the VPC
- CA Transit Gateway attachment for every subnet
- DAn internet gateway with no route table
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Correct answer: BDNS resolution and DNS hostnames must be enabled on the VPC for the Amazon-provided resolver to answer names of resources inside it. Public IP settings and gateways do not control private name resolution.
Question 25
Traffic between an on-premises network and a VPC must use a private connection with consistent bandwidth, and it must not traverse the public internet. Which service fits?
- AA public IP address on each on-premises server with HTTPS open to the VPC
- BAWS Snowmobile shipping container for every on-premises request to the VPC
- CAmazon Route 53 Resolver outbound endpoint with forwarding rules for DNS
- DAWS Direct Connect with a dedicated or hosted connection and a virtual interface
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Correct answer: DDirect Connect provides a dedicated private network connection to AWS with more consistent bandwidth than internet paths. Public addresses use the internet, and Snowmobile and Resolver endpoints do not provide this connection.
Cost and Performance Optimization (5 questions)
Question 26
A team runs stateless batch workers that can be interrupted without harm, and wants to lower EC2 cost significantly. Which purchasing option is designed for this?
- ASpot Instances in the Auto Scaling group with diversified instance types
- BReserved Instances for one year with no usage review or rightsizing of the fleet
- CDedicated Hosts for a single small script run once daily
- DOn-Demand Capacity Reservations kept open with no workload running on the fleet for days
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Correct answer: ASpot Instances offer large discounts for interruptible workloads, and diversifying instance types improves capacity availability. Reservations for idle capacity waste money, and Dedicated Hosts cost more than shared hardware.
Question 27
An EC2 fleet has a steady baseline of load with predictable peaks each weekday. The team wants to match capacity to demand and reduce cost without manual scaling. Which Auto Scaling policy fits best?
- AA fixed group size of 100 instances throughout
- BManual scale-out by an engineer in advance of each daily peak
- CScaling when an instance is restarted by hand
- DTarget tracking scaling policy on a utilization metric
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Correct answer: DA target tracking policy adjusts capacity automatically to hold a metric near a target, which fits demand that rises and falls each day. Fixed capacity wastes money, and manual scaling needs ongoing effort.
Question 28
A team runs a fleet of m5 instances with steady usage for the next three years and wants to reduce cost for the committed portion. Which pricing commitment fits?
- ASavings Plans or Reserved Instances for the committed baseline
- BOn-Demand pricing for the m5 fleet over three years with no commitment
- CSpot Instances for the whole steady fleet in production with a fixed max price
- DDedicated Hosts for every instance in the fleet to meet licensing rules
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Correct answer: ASavings Plans or Reserved Instances reduce the rate on a steady baseline in exchange for a commitment. Spot can be interrupted and is unsuitable for steady production capacity, and Dedicated Hosts cost more.
Question 29
Development EC2 instances run all night and on weekends when nobody uses them. The team wants to cut cost automatically without deleting the instances. What should they do?
- AUse an Instance Scheduler or an EventBridge schedule that stops the instances outside working hours
- BTerminate the instances every Friday evening and recreate them by hand on Monday morning from the saved AMI
- CUpgrade the instance size so the batch jobs finish faster on larger instance types
- DRun a crypto miner on the idle development instances during off-hours to earn spare compute revenue through a mining pool
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Correct answer: AScheduled stop and start keeps the instances and their data while removing compute charges during idle hours. Terminating loses the instances, and upgrading the size increases cost.
Question 30
A finance lead wants to see last month's EC2 spend split by team and by environment, using tags already applied to the resources. Which tool provides this view?
- AAmazon Inspector vulnerability dashboard
- BAmazon Route 53 query graph by record type
- CCost Explorer grouped by cost allocation tags
- DAWS Shield Advanced metrics for DDoS
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Correct answer: CCost Explorer can group spend by activated cost allocation tags such as team and environment. Inspector, Shield and Route 53 do not report spending by tag.
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