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Free 200-201 practice test: 30 questions with answers
30 original questions for Understanding Cisco Cybersecurity Operations Fundamentals (CBROPS), drawn from every topic area. Answer each one to see whether you got it right and why. No sign-up.
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All 30 200-201 questions with answers
The same questions as the test above, grouped by exam topic. Open any question to see the answer and explanation.
Host-Based Analysis (6 questions)
Question 1
Which Windows Security event ID is recorded when an account logon succeeds?
- A4688
- B4624
- C4625
- D1102
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Correct answer: BEvent ID 4624 records a successful logon. Event 4625 records a failed logon, 4688 records process creation when auditing is enabled, and 1102 shows that the audit log was cleared.
Question 2
An analyst must determine whether a known system file has been modified. Which check gives a reliable answer?
- ACheck the file's default application association
- BLook at the file's icon in Explorer
- CCheck the last opened timestamp only
- DCompare a cryptographic hash of the file with a trusted baseline value
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Correct answer: DAny byte change alters the hash, so comparing against a trusted baseline reveals modification. Timestamps can be altered or left unchanged, and application associations and icons do not reflect file contents.
Question 3
Which two artefacts are useful when checking a Windows host for persistence? (Choose two.)
- ARun registry keys
- BDesktop wallpaper settings
- CPrinter driver font files
- DKeyboard layout list
- EScheduled tasks
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Correct answer: A, EScheduled tasks and Run registry keys can restart a program at logon or on a timer, which is how malware persists. Wallpaper, printer fonts and keyboard layouts are rarely used for persistence.
Question 4
On a Debian-based Linux host, which log file records authentication events such as SSH logins and sudo use?
- A/boot/grub
- B/var/log/auth.log
- C/etc/passwd
- D/var/cache/apt
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Correct answer: Bauth.log records authentication events, including SSH logins and sudo activity, on Debian-based systems. The passwd file stores account data, the apt cache holds packages, and the boot directory holds loader files.
Question 5
When Sysmon is installed on Windows, which event shows a process creation along with its parent process and command line?
- AWindows Event ID 4625
- BPrint spooler service log
- CSysmon Event ID 1
- DDHCP lease table
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Correct answer: CSysmon Event ID 1 records process creation with parent and command-line details, which is useful for tracing suspicious child processes. Event 4625 records failed logons, print spooler logs cover printing, and the DHCP lease table lists addresses.
Question 6
Before shutting down a suspected compromised host, an analyst must preserve the most volatile evidence. Which artefact should be collected first?
- AArchived email folders
- BBackup tapes in storage
- CMemory contents, including running processes and network connections
- DA disk image of the system drive
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Correct answer: CRAM changes constantly and is lost at power-off, so it is collected first. Disk images and archives persist, and backup tapes are static.
Security Monitoring (6 questions)
Question 7
A SIEM receives a syslog message with severity level 0. What does this indicate?
- ADebug, informational messages only
- BEmergency, the system is unusable
- CWarning, a warning condition exists
- DNotice, a normal but significant condition
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Correct answer: BSyslog severity 0 is emergency, the highest priority. Notice is level 5, warning is level 4, and debug is level 7, the lowest priority.
Question 8
A collector stores records with source and destination IP addresses, ports and protocol, but no payload content. What type of data is this?
- AFlow telemetry such as NetFlow
- BFull packet capture
- CHost event log
- DWeb server application log
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Correct answer: AFlow records summarise conversations by address, port and protocol without the payload. Full packet capture keeps every packet, web server logs record HTTP requests, and host event logs come from endpoints.
Question 9
Which device can drop malicious traffic inline as well as generate alerts about it?
- AAn intrusion prevention system in inline mode
- BA passive intrusion detection system fed from a SPAN port
- CA packet analyser running on a laptop
- DA network tap that only copies traffic
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Correct answer: AAn inline IPS sits in the traffic path and can block packets based on signatures or policy. A passive IDS only alerts from a copy of the traffic, a tap copies without acting, and an analyser only records.
Question 10
Which two conditions in a SIEM correlation rule best indicate a brute-force or password spraying attempt? (Choose two.)
- AA single successful login by an approved user during business hours
- BThe number of CPU cores on the authentication server
- CFirmware update timestamps on a switch
- DRepeated failed authentication events from one source within a short window
- EMany failed logins against different accounts from the same source
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Correct answer: D, EMany failures from one source, whether against one account or many accounts, is the core pattern of brute force and spraying. A single approved login, hardware specifications and firmware timestamps do not indicate password guessing.
Question 11
Which Snort rule keyword searches the packet payload for a specific pattern?
- Asid
- Bclasstype
- Cmsg
- Dcontent
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Correct answer: DThe content keyword matches a byte or text pattern in the payload. The msg option sets the alert text, sid gives a unique signature ID, and classtype groups alerts by category.
Question 12
Which Wireshark display filter shows only TCP packets with the SYN flag set and the ACK flag cleared?
- Aip.addr == 10.0.0.5 && http
- Btcp.flags.syn == 1 && tcp.flags.ack == 0
- Cframe contains "SYN"
- Dtcp.port == 80
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Correct answer: BThis display filter matches connection-initiation packets by their TCP flags. Port 80 alone does not test flags, the IP filter has no flag logic, and frame contains searches raw bytes for text.
Security Concepts (6 questions)
Question 13
A hospital team ensures that patient records can be changed only by authorised staff, and that unauthorised edits are detected. Which security principle is most directly addressed?
- AConfidentiality
- BAvailability
- CIntegrity
- DNon-repudiation
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Correct answer: CIntegrity means data is accurate and cannot be altered without authorisation. Availability concerns access when needed, confidentiality limits disclosure, and non-repudiation proves who performed an action.
Question 14
An analyst compares the SHA-256 value of a downloaded installer with the value the vendor publishes, and the two match. What does this prove?
- AThe file is free of malware
- BThe file was encrypted with a symmetric key
- CThe file is identical to the file the vendor published
- DThe file was signed with the vendor's private key
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Correct answer: CA matching hash shows the file bytes are unchanged from the published version. It does not prove who signed the file or that the file is free of malware, and a hash is not encryption.
Question 15
Which two statements about symmetric encryption are correct? (Choose two.)
- AIt requires a certificate issued by a certificate authority
- BIt provides non-repudiation by design
- CThe same key is used to encrypt and decrypt the data
- DIt is generally faster than asymmetric encryption for bulk data
- EIt uses a public and private key pair for each message
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Correct answer: C, DSymmetric encryption uses one shared key and is efficient for large volumes of data. Public and private key pairs and certificates belong to asymmetric schemes, and symmetric encryption alone does not prove who sent a message.
Question 16
A web server runs software with an unpatched flaw that allows remote code execution. Which term describes the flaw itself?
- ARisk register
- BExploit
- CThreat actor
- DVulnerability
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Correct answer: DA vulnerability is the weakness in the system. An exploit is the code or method that takes advantage of it, a threat actor is the party behind an attack, and a risk register records risks.
Question 17
A company wants a partner to reach an internal web application without seeing internal IP addresses. Which technology translates addresses at the network boundary?
- AARP
- BDHCP
- CNAT
- DDNS
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Correct answer: CNAT maps internal addresses to external ones at the boundary, which hides the internal addressing. DHCP assigns addresses, DNS resolves names, and ARP maps IP addresses to MAC addresses on a local segment.
Question 18
Two parties must agree on a shared secret key over an untrusted network without sending the key itself. Which mechanism is designed for this?
- ASHA-512 one-way hashing
- BAES-256 block cipher encryption
- CBase64 encoding of binary data
- DDiffie-Hellman key exchange
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Correct answer: DDiffie-Hellman lets two parties derive a shared secret over an open channel. AES encrypts data with an existing key, SHA-512 is a one-way hash, and Base64 is an encoding rather than encryption.
Network Intrusion Analysis (6 questions)
Question 19
A packet capture shows a SYN from a client, a SYN-ACK from the server, and an ACK from the client. What does this sequence establish?
- AA DNS query and its response
- BAn ICMP echo exchange
- CA TLS session with negotiated cipher suites
- DA TCP connection using the three-way handshake
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Correct answer: DSYN, SYN-ACK and ACK is the TCP three-way handshake that opens a connection. TLS negotiation starts after TCP is established, DNS uses query and response messages, and ICMP echo is the ping exchange.
Question 20
Which two traffic characteristics suggest possible DNS tunnelling? (Choose two.)
- AMany queries with long, high-entropy subdomain labels to one external domain
- BA high volume of TXT or NULL record queries to one external domain
- CA single A-record lookup for a well-known website
- DHTTP 200 responses from a corporate web server
- EDHCP lease renewals from laptops
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Correct answer: A, BTunnelling encodes data into long random subdomain labels and often uses TXT or NULL records to carry responses. A single lookup, normal HTTP success and DHCP renewals are routine traffic.
Question 21
Web application logs show repeated requests with a query string containing OR 1=1 and comment markers. Which attack is most likely being attempted?
- ASQL injection
- BDirectory traversal
- CPort scanning
- DCross-site scripting
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Correct answer: AA tautology such as OR 1=1 changes the logic of a SQL query, which is the signature of SQL injection. Cross-site scripting injects script into pages, directory traversal uses path sequences, and port scanning probes ports rather than parameters.
Question 22
An internal host contacts the same external IP address every 60 seconds with similar packet sizes. What does this pattern most suggest?
- AA normal web browsing session
- BPossible command-and-control beaconing
- CRoutine backup replication to an offsite site
- DA standard DHCP lease renewal
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Correct answer: BRegular, similar-sized callbacks to one external host are a classic beacon pattern used by malware to receive commands. Browsing is bursty, backups go to known destinations on a schedule, and DHCP renewals stay on the local network.
Question 23
A host responds to a connection attempt with a TCP segment that has only the RST flag set. What does this usually indicate?
- AThe segment sets the URG flag so the receiver processes the urgent pointer data first in the send buffer
- BThe connection was aborted immediately, often because no service listens on that port
- CThe segment sets the PSH flag to request immediate delivery of buffered data
- DThe connection closed gracefully with FIN after a complete four-way exchange
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Correct answer: BRST aborts a connection immediately, which commonly happens when no service is listening on the port. FIN closes gracefully, URG marks urgent data, and PSH asks for prompt delivery.
Question 24
A web server returns a 403 status to many requests from one IP address. What does this status mean?
- AThe page has moved permanently to a new address
- BThe server understood the request but refuses to authorise it
- CThe request is syntactically malformed and fails parsing
- DThe server is overloaded and its worker pool cannot respond
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Correct answer: B403 Forbidden means the request was understood but access is denied. A 301 indicates a permanent redirect, 503 means the service is unavailable, and 400 indicates a malformed request.
Security Policies and Procedures (6 questions)
Question 25
In the NIST incident response lifecycle, which phase includes identifying the scope and impact of a suspected incident?
- APost-incident activity
- BRecovery
- CPreparation
- DDetection and Analysis
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Correct answer: DDetection and Analysis covers confirming an incident and determining its scope and impact. Preparation builds capability before incidents, Recovery restores systems, and Post-incident activity captures lessons learned.
Question 26
Evidence from a suspected intrusion is handed from the first responder to a forensic analyst. What must the chain of custody record for each transfer?
- AWho handled the evidence, when, and why, with a signature or time stamp
- BOnly the final incident report
- CThe analyst's preferred forensic tool
- DNothing, if a copy of the evidence was made first
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Correct answer: AA chain of custody records each handler, time and purpose so the evidence stays credible and admissible. A final report alone leaves gaps, tool preference is irrelevant, and copying the evidence does not replace documenting each transfer.
Question 27
During an active incident, a firewall rule must be changed urgently. Which document defines who may approve this emergency change and how it is recorded?
- AThe network topology diagram for the perimeter firewall and DMZ segments
- BThe vendor's recent glossy marketing brochure for the firewall product line
- CThe change management policy and its emergency change procedure
- DThe end user acceptance test script for the firewall change window
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Correct answer: CA change management policy defines approval paths and records for emergency changes. A topology diagram shows layout, a brochure is not a governance document, and a test script checks functionality.
Question 28
Which two items belong in a documented incident handling procedure? (Choose two.)
- AAssigned roles for communication and decision-making
- BPublishing the root cause publicly before containment
- CDeleting logs after containment to free space
- DLetting each analyst choose a different evidence format
- EA record of who handled each piece of evidence and when
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Correct answer: A, EEvidence records and defined roles keep the response coordinated and defensible. Publishing before containment, deleting logs and inconsistent evidence formats all damage the response or its legal value.
Question 29
A breach affecting personal data of individuals in the European Union must be assessed for notification. Which regulation governs this?
- APCI DSS
- BGDPR
- CHIPAA
- DSOX
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Correct answer: BGDPR governs personal data of individuals in the EU and includes breach notification duties. PCI DSS covers payment card data, HIPAA covers US health information, and SOX covers financial reporting controls.
Question 30
Which document defines the scope, timing and permitted methods for an authorised penetration test?
- APacket capture filter
- BFirewall rule export
- CRules of engagement
- DVendor price list
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Correct answer: CRules of engagement define scope, timing and permitted methods so the test stays authorised and controlled. Capture filters, firewall exports and price lists are operational or commercial documents.