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Free 300-710 practice test: 30 questions with answers

30 original questions for Securing Networks with Cisco Firewalls (SNCF) v1.2, drawn from every topic area. Answer each one to see whether you got it right and why. No sign-up.

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300-710 exam guide: topics, cost and format

All 30 300-710 questions with answers

The same questions as the test above, grouped by exam topic. Open any question to see the answer and explanation.

Deployment (8 questions)

  1. Question 1

    A company needs to place a firewall between two server segments that share one IPv4 subnet, and it cannot renumber either segment. Which Secure Firewall Threat Defense firewall mode should the engineer configure?

    1. ARouted mode with static routes on each interface
    2. BTransparent mode with a separate routing table for each interface
    3. CRouted mode with NAT applied on every interface
    4. DTransparent mode with the interfaces placed in a bridge group
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: D

    Transparent mode operates at layer 2, so the device can sit between two hosts in the same subnet without renumbering, and bridge groups hold the interfaces. Routed mode requires each interface to sit in a different subnet, so A and C do not meet the requirement, and D describes per-interface routing tables that transparent mode does not use.

  2. Question 2

    A security team wants to inspect a mirrored copy of traffic from a SPAN port for intrusion events. The sensor must never sit in the path of live traffic. Which NGIPS deployment mode fits this requirement?

    1. AInline set mode with drop rules enabled on both interfaces
    2. BPassive mode on an interface that receives the SPAN feed
    3. CRouted mode with an access rule set to block the source
    4. DInline tap mode on a pair of inline interfaces for monitoring
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: B

    Passive mode analyzes a copy of the traffic and never forwards or blocks live packets, which matches a SPAN-fed sensor. Inline set and inline tap both place the device in the forwarding path, and routed blocking enforces decisions on live traffic, so A, B and D are wrong.

  3. Question 3

    A team places an inline pair in front of a server farm to test a new intrusion policy. Traffic must keep flowing, and the team wants events that show what the policy would have dropped. Which mode should it use?

    1. AInline set mode with drop rules fully enabled
    2. BRouted mode with a block rule for each signature
    3. CInline tap mode on the inline set
    4. DTransparent mode with bridge group enforcement
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: C

    Inline tap mode lets traffic pass while Snort generates the events it would have produced had it dropped the packets, which suits a policy trial. Inline set with drop rules enforces the drops, and routed or transparent blocking changes live traffic, so A, B and C are wrong.

  4. Question 4

    Two Threat Defense devices form an active and standby high availability pair. During normal operation, what does the standby unit do?

    1. AIt receives its configuration only after the active unit has already failed
    2. BIt forwards production traffic in parallel with the active unit to double the total throughput of the pair
    3. CIt keeps synchronized configuration from the active unit and does not forward production traffic
    4. DIt must be registered to a different Management Center than the active unit
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: C

    In an active and standby pair, the standby unit receives configuration and connection state from the active unit over the failover links and takes over only after a failover. Option B describes an active and active model that this pair does not use, D is wrong because both units are managed by the same Management Center, and A is wrong because configuration is synchronized continuously.

  5. Question 5

    Which option lets an organization run Secure Firewall Threat Defense as software inside a hypervisor or a public cloud instance, rather than on dedicated hardware?

    1. ASecure Firewall Threat Defense Virtual (FTDv)
    2. BSecure Firewall Management Center hardware appliance
    3. CFirepower 4100 Series security appliance
    4. DCisco Defense Orchestrator tenant with no managed devices
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: A

    FTDv is the virtual form factor of Threat Defense and runs on a hypervisor or in a public cloud. The Management Center appliance is a manager, the Firepower 4100 is dedicated hardware, and Cisco Defense Orchestrator is a cloud management service rather than a firewall instance, so B, C and D are wrong.

  6. Question 6

    A data center has several Firepower 4100 Series appliances and wants a group of Threat Defense units to act as one logical firewall that scales throughput. Which feature provides this?

    1. AActive and standby failover pair of two devices
    2. BClustering of Threat Defense units
    3. CMulti-instance container deployment on one chassis
    4. DTransparent bridge group on a single device
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: B

    Clustering groups several Threat Defense units into one logical device that shares the load and scales throughput. Active and standby failover offers redundancy with only one unit forwarding at a time, multi-instance runs separate independent logical devices, and a bridge group is a single-device mode, so A, C and D are wrong.

  7. Question 7

    An organization wants to manage its firewalls from a cloud service and does not want to run a management server on its own premises. Which option fits this requirement?

    1. AFirepower Device Manager running on each individual device
    2. BCisco Identity Services Engine deployed as the firewall policy manager
    3. CCloud-delivered Firewall Management Center through Cisco Defense Orchestrator
    4. DA self-hosted Management Center virtual appliance running in the company's own cloud account
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: C

    Cloud-delivered Firewall Management Center is provided as a service through Cisco Defense Orchestrator, so the company runs no management server itself. A self-hosted virtual Management Center still needs a server the company operates, Device Manager runs locally on each device, and ISE is an identity and access product rather than a firewall manager.

  8. Question 8

    A small branch has one Threat Defense device and no central manager. The administrator wants a browser-based manager that runs on that device. Which option should be used?

    1. AA separate Management Center appliance at each branch
    2. BFirepower Device Manager running on the device
    3. CCisco pxGrid publishing policy to the device
    4. DSecure Malware Analytics appliance for policy changes
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: B

    Firepower Device Manager is the on-box, browser-based manager for a single Threat Defense device. A dedicated Management Center at every branch is more than one device needs, pxGrid is an information-sharing framework, and Secure Malware Analytics is a file sandbox, so A, C and D do not fit.

Configuration (8 questions)

  1. Question 9

    An engineer wants traffic from one trusted server subnet to bypass intrusion and file inspection in an access control policy, while all other traffic stays inspected. Which rule action achieves this?

    1. AInteractive block with a user prompt for the server subnet
    2. BAllow action with an intrusion policy set to No Rules Active
    3. CBlock with reset for traffic from the trusted server subnet
    4. DTrust action on a rule that matches the trusted server subnet
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: D

    The Trust action allows matching traffic without further Snort inspection, so the trusted subnet skips intrusion and file checks. Allow with No Rules Active still sends traffic through the inspection engine, and both block actions stop the traffic instead of passing it, so B, C and D are wrong.

  2. Question 10

    When Management Center evaluates a new connection against an access control policy, which component is checked first, before Security Intelligence and the access control rules?

    1. ASSL decryption policy
    2. BIntrusion policy
    3. CPrefilter policy
    4. DFile policy
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: C

    The prefilter policy is evaluated first and can fastpath or block traffic before Security Intelligence and the access rules run. The SSL decryption policy comes later in the evaluation, while intrusion and file policies apply after a rule has matched, so A, B and C are not the first check.

  3. Question 11

    An administrator uses the same three web server addresses in many access control rules and NAT rules. The team wants one change to the addresses to update every rule that uses them. Which object should be created?

    1. ANetwork object group that contains the three server addresses
    2. BPort object that lists the web service port numbers
    3. CFQDN object that resolves to the DNS name shared by the web servers
    4. DSecurity zone assigned to the interfaces that face the servers
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: A

    A network object group holds several address objects under one name, so every rule that references the group updates when its members change. An FQDN object resolves one DNS name, a port object holds ports, and a security zone groups interfaces, so none of those holds the three addresses.

  4. Question 12

    A company wants access rules to apply to members of an Active Directory group, rather than to a fixed list of IP addresses. Which configuration in Management Center supports this?

    1. AAn identity policy with an Active Directory realm, referenced by access rules
    2. BA DNS policy that sinkholes domain names for each Active Directory user group
    3. CA NAT rule that translates each user address into a shared address pool
    4. DAn intrusion policy with a variable set that lists user account names
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: A

    An identity policy uses an identity source such as an Active Directory realm to tie users to traffic, and access control rules can then match those users. A DNS policy works on name lookups, a NAT rule only translates addresses, and a variable set in an intrusion policy holds network definitions rather than user names, so A, C and D are wrong.

  5. Question 13

    An administrator wants a starting intrusion policy that protects against common threats while limiting false positives and blocking that disrupts legitimate business traffic. Which base policy should be selected?

    1. ABalanced Security and Connectivity base policy
    2. BSecurity Over Connectivity base policy, which favors blocking
    3. CMaximum Detection base policy
    4. DNo Rules Active base policy
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: A

    Balanced Security and Connectivity is the base policy designed to balance protection against disruption to legitimate traffic. Security Over Connectivity favors blocking, Maximum Detection favors broad alerting with more noise, and No Rules Active turns off the rule set, so B, C and D are not the best starting point.

  6. Question 14

    A Threat Defense device is set to use the Snort 3 inspection engine. Which description best matches Snort 3 compared with the earlier engine?

    1. AA plug-in for the LINA engine that inspects only VPN tunnel traffic
    2. BA management process that inspects only traffic sent to the management interface
    3. CA feature that removes the need for intrusion policies on managed devices
    4. DA rewritten engine built from modular inspectors that supports multithreaded processing
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: D

    Snort 3 is a rewritten inspection engine with modular inspectors and multithreaded processing. The other options describe behavior that Snort 3 does not have, such as VPN-only inspection, management-interface-only inspection, or removal of intrusion policies.

  7. Question 15

    A web server on the inside network must be reachable from the internet at one fixed public IP address. Which NAT type should be configured for this server?

    1. ADynamic PAT that shares one public address among many hosts
    2. BIdentity NAT that leaves the server address unchanged
    3. CStatic NAT that maps the server to one public address
    4. DDynamic NAT pool that assigns addresses from a large range
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: C

    Static NAT creates a fixed one-to-one mapping, so inbound connections to the public address reach the internal server. Dynamic PAT shares one address among many outbound hosts, identity NAT does not translate the address, and a dynamic pool does not give a stable mapping, so A, B and C are wrong.

  8. Question 16

    Which two components are configured as part of an access control policy in Management Center? (Choose two.)

    1. APrefilter policy
    2. BSecurity Intelligence settings
    3. CNTP server list for time synchronization
    4. DChassis fan profile
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: A, B

    The prefilter policy and the Security Intelligence settings are both part of an access control policy and are applied during traffic evaluation. An NTP server list is a Management Center system setting and a fan profile is chassis hardware, so C and D are not access control components.

Management and Troubleshooting (7 questions)

  1. Question 17

    Users report that a web application is blocked intermittently. The administrator needs to see which access control rule handled each logged connection and the action taken. Which event type should be reviewed?

    1. ADiscovery events, which record hosts and applications seen on the network
    2. BHealth events, which record module status on managed devices
    3. CConnection events, which record the rule matched and the action taken
    4. DMalware events, which record files flagged by a file policy
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: C

    Connection events record logged connections with the access control rule that matched and the action applied, so they explain why traffic was blocked. Discovery events describe hosts and applications, health events describe device module status, and malware events describe files, so A, B and C do not show the rule and action.

  2. Question 18

    An engineer suspects the Threat Defense data path is dropping packets before they reach Snort. Which command, run from the LINA diagnostic CLI, lists the counters for each reason packets were dropped?

    1. Ashow conn detail
    2. Bshow running-config route
    3. Cshow asp drop
    4. Dshow version
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: C

    The show asp drop command displays counters for the reasons the accelerated security path dropped packets, which helps locate data path drops. The show conn detail command lists connections, show running-config route displays routing configuration, and show version reports software details, so A, C and D do not list drop reasons.

  3. Question 19

    An administrator wants to predict how the LINA engine would handle a hypothetical TCP packet from the inside interface to a web server, including which access list and NAT phases it hits. Which tool should be used?

    1. Ashow conn for the active flows
    2. Bcapture-traffic on the device shell
    3. CHealth Monitor alerts for the interface and its link status
    4. Dpacket-tracer in the LINA diagnostic CLI
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: D

    The packet-tracer command simulates a packet you define and reports each processing phase, including access list and NAT decisions. The capture-traffic utility records real packets rather than simulating one, show conn lists existing connections, and Health Monitor alerts report device health, so none of those predicts the handling of a hypothetical flow.

  4. Question 20

    Management Center administrators want to see module health status and health alerts for all managed Threat Defense devices in one place. Which feature provides this view?

    1. AAudit log viewer
    2. BHealth Monitor
    3. CObject manager
    4. DAccess control policy editor
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: B

    Health Monitor shows the status of device modules and raises health alerts for every managed device in one view. The audit log records administrator actions, the policy editor changes access rules, and the object manager stores reusable objects, so A, B and C do not show module health.

  5. Question 21

    An analyst wants to see which hosts, operating systems, and application protocols the network discovery feature has observed on the monitored network. Which event type holds this information?

    1. AIntrusion events describing signature matches
    2. BFile events describing transferred file types
    3. CMalware events describing blocked file dispositions
    4. DDiscovery events
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: D

    Discovery events are generated by network discovery and record the hosts, operating systems, and application protocols observed on the network. Intrusion events record signature matches, file events record transferred files, and malware events record file dispositions, so A, B and D do not describe host inventory.

  6. Question 22

    An engineer needs the LINA engine on a Threat Defense device to record real packets that match a filter on the inside interface, so the packets can be exported and analyzed later. Which LINA CLI command accomplishes this?

    1. Ashow route to display the routing table
    2. Bpacket-tracer with a simulated TCP packet
    3. Cshow xlate to list active translations
    4. Dcapture with an interface name and match criteria
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: D

    The LINA capture command records real packets that match the specified interface and match criteria, and the capture can be exported for analysis. The packet-tracer command only simulates a packet, show xlate lists NAT translations, and show route displays routes, so B, C and D do not record real traffic.

  7. Question 23

    Which two features help administrators summarize security activity in Management Center? (Choose two.)

    1. ACustom dashboards built from widgets
    2. BReport templates that can be generated as PDF files
    3. CDirect SSH sessions into managed device shells
    4. DAutomatic creation of a VPN tunnel between two devices
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: A, B

    Custom dashboards built from widgets and report templates that produce PDF output are both used to summarize security activity. Direct SSH sessions are device access rather than a summary feature, and automatic VPN tunnel creation is not a reporting function, so C and D are wrong.

Integration (7 questions)

  1. Question 24

    A file policy flags an executable with no known signature. The security team wants the file run in a sandbox and a behavior report returned to the analysts. Which Cisco component provides this?

    1. ACisco Identity Services Engine profiling service
    2. BSecure Malware Analytics
    3. CCisco Umbrella DNS security policy
    4. DSplunk search head with an indexer
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: B

    Secure Malware Analytics is the Cisco sandbox that runs suspicious files and produces behavior reports for analysts. Identity Services Engine handles access and profiling, Splunk stores and searches logs, and Umbrella provides DNS-layer security, so A, B and C cannot detonate a file.

  2. Question 25

    Cisco ISE and Firewall Management Center need to share session and endpoint context in near real time through a publish and subscribe framework. Which technology provides this exchange?

    1. ApxGrid
    2. BSNMP trap notifications
    3. CSyslog forwarding with a severity filter
    4. DNetFlow record export
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: A

    pxGrid is the Cisco publish and subscribe framework that lets platforms such as ISE and Firewall Management Center exchange contextual information. Syslog, SNMP traps, and NetFlow are one-way telemetry or notification mechanisms and do not provide the shared context exchange described, so A, B and D are wrong.

  3. Question 26

    A SOC wants one cloud console that correlates detections from endpoint, firewall, email, and network telemetry into shared investigations. Which Cisco offering fits this need?

    1. ACisco Secure Dynamic Attributes Connector
    2. BCisco XDR
    3. CCisco Identity Services Engine policy server
    4. DFirepower eStreamer client on a log server
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: B

    Cisco XDR is a cloud-based detection and response platform that correlates telemetry from several Cisco and partner products into shared investigations. The Dynamic Attributes Connector passes tags to policies, eStreamer streams events to a client, and ISE enforces access policy, so A, B and C are not the correlating console.

  4. Question 27

    Which two functions does Threat Intelligence Director perform in Management Center? (Choose two.)

    1. AIngests STIX and TAXII formatted threat intelligence feeds
    2. BConverts ingested indicators into observables for detection
    3. CReplaces the need for intrusion policies on managed devices
    4. DEncrypts all traffic before it reaches the Snort engine
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: A, B

    Threat Intelligence Director imports threat intelligence in STIX and TAXII form and turns the resulting indicators into observables that the detection engine can match. Replacing intrusion policies and encrypting traffic are not TID functions, so C and D are wrong.

  5. Question 28

    A file policy must check the disposition of a file hash that it has not seen before. Which Cisco cloud service provides the file disposition lookup?

    1. ASecure Endpoint cloud
    2. BCisco ISE profiling service
    3. CSplunk Cloud forwarder
    4. DCisco Umbrella DNS resolver service
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: A

    The Secure Endpoint cloud supplies file dispositions that a file policy can use for lookups. Umbrella handles DNS-layer security, ISE handles access and profiling, and a Splunk Cloud forwarder moves logs, so A, B and C do not provide file dispositions.

  6. Question 29

    A SIEM team wants detailed Firewall Management Center event records streamed in a structured form to a Splunk add-on. Which Cisco interface is designed for this?

    1. ASNMP counter polling
    2. BeStreamer
    3. CNetFlow template export
    4. DDHCP option relay
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: B

    eStreamer is the Firewall Management Center interface that streams structured event records to external consumers such as a Splunk add-on. SNMP polling reads counters, NetFlow exports flow summaries, and DHCP option relay handles address assignment, so A, C and D do not stream event records.

  7. Question 30

    After a detection identifies a compromised endpoint, the security team wants Cisco ISE to quarantine that endpoint automatically. Which Firewall Management Center feature provides this?

    1. AThreat Intelligence Director import
    2. BRapid Threat Containment
    3. CSecurity Analytics and Logging retention
    4. DSecure Malware Analytics sandboxing
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: B

    Rapid Threat Containment lets Firewall Management Center work with ISE over pxGrid so that a detected endpoint can be quarantined. Threat Intelligence Director imports indicators, Security Analytics and Logging stores logs, and Secure Malware Analytics runs sandbox analysis, so A, B and D do not quarantine endpoints.