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Free Certificate of Cloud Security Knowledge v5 (CCSK) practice test: 30 questions with answers
30 original questions for Certificate of Cloud Security Knowledge v5 (CCSK), drawn from every topic area. Answer each one to see whether you got it right and why. No sign-up.
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Certificate of Cloud Security Knowledge v5 (CCSK) exam guide: topics, cost and format
All 30 Certificate of Cloud Security Knowledge v5 (CCSK) questions with answers
The same questions as the test above, grouped by exam topic. Open any question to see the answer and explanation.
Cloud Computing Concepts & Architectures (3 questions)
Question 1
A company rents virtual machines and block storage from a cloud provider. Its own team installs and manages the guest operating system, middleware, and application code. Which service model does this describe?
- ASoftware as a Service (SaaS)
- BPlatform as a Service (PaaS)
- CInfrastructure as a Service (IaaS)
- DPrivate cloud deployment model for internal teams
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Correct answer: CIaaS gives the customer control over the operating system, middleware, and applications while the provider runs the underlying compute, storage, and network. SaaS and PaaS shift more of the stack to the provider, and a private cloud is a deployment model, not a service model.
Question 2
Which of the following is NOT one of the five essential characteristics of cloud computing defined in NIST SP 800-145?
- ADedicated hardware per tenant
- BRapid elasticity
- COn-demand self-service
- DBroad network access over standard mechanisms
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Correct answer: ANIST SP 800-145 lists on-demand self-service, broad network access, resource pooling, rapid elasticity, and measured service as the essential characteristics. Dedicated hardware per tenant runs against resource pooling and is not on that list, while the other three options are among the five characteristics.
Question 3
In an IaaS deployment, which two security tasks typically remain the customer's responsibility? (Choose two.)
- APatching the guest operating system
- BPhysical security of the data center
- CConfiguring virtual firewall rules for instances
- DMaintaining the hypervisor on host servers
- EReplacing failed disks in the storage array
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Correct answer: A, CIn IaaS the customer manages the guest operating system and its patches, along with the virtual network controls applied to its own instances. The provider handles physical facilities, the hypervisor, and hardware such as storage disks, so those three options are wrong.
Cloud Governance (3 questions)
Question 4
Staff in several departments have been signing up for file-sharing and project tools without security review, and some are storing customer records in them. Which policy would most directly define which cloud services are approved and what data they may hold?
- ACloud acceptable use and approved services policy
- BQuarterly disaster recovery exercise schedule
- CEmployee travel and expense reimbursement standard
- DVendor invoice approval procedure
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Correct answer: AAn acceptable use and approved services policy sets which cloud services may be used and which data classes they can handle. The other options govern travel costs, recovery testing, and invoice approvals, so they do not control cloud service adoption.
Question 5
Which standard provides a code of practice with cloud-specific information security controls that extends the controls in ISO/IEC 27002 for both cloud providers and cloud customers?
- AISO/IEC 27017, cloud-specific security controls
- BISO/IEC 27018, PII protection in public clouds
- CISO/IEC 27035, security incident management process
- DISO 9001, quality management systems
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Correct answer: AISO/IEC 27017 gives cloud-specific guidance that builds on ISO/IEC 27002 for both sides of the cloud relationship. ISO/IEC 27018 focuses on protecting personal data in public clouds, ISO 9001 covers quality management, and ISO/IEC 27035 covers incident management, so each of those is the wrong answer here.
Question 6
Which policy document type lists the mandatory technical specifications that cloud services must meet, such as approved encryption algorithms and minimum configuration baselines?
- AStandard with mandatory technical requirements
- BGuideline with recommended practices for teams
- CProcedure with step-by-step administrator instructions
- DPolicy with high-level management intent and principles
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Correct answer: AA standard sets mandatory, specific technical requirements that implement a policy. A guideline is advisory, a procedure is a sequence of steps, and a policy states high-level intent, so none of those three sets mandatory technical specifications on its own.
Risk, Audit, & Compliance (3 questions)
Question 7
A customer's procurement team wants independent evidence that a SaaS provider's security controls operated effectively over a review period, not just that they were designed correctly on paper. Which assurance report should the team request?
- ASOC 1 Type I report on financial reporting controls
- BSOC 2 Type I report for a single date
- CPenetration test summary from the last quarter
- DSOC 2 Type II report covering a review period
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Correct answer: DA SOC 2 Type II report tests whether controls operated effectively across a period, which matches the request. A SOC 2 Type I report only covers design at one point in time, a SOC 1 report targets financial reporting controls, and a penetration test is a point-in-time technical test rather than an attestation of controls.
Question 8
A company buys cyber insurance so that part of the cost of a breach at its cloud-hosted order system would be paid by an insurer. Which risk treatment option does this decision represent?
- ARisk acceptance with documented sign-off
- BRisk transfer to an insurance carrier
- CRisk avoidance by ending the service
- DRisk mitigation through added technical controls
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Correct answer: BInsurance moves part of the financial impact of a risk to another party, which is risk transfer. Accepting the risk, avoiding it by removing the activity, or mitigating it with controls are different treatment options that do not shift the financial exposure.
Question 9
A European company stores personal data of EU residents in a SaaS platform whose data centers are outside the EU. Which action most directly addresses the GDPR restriction on transferring personal data to third countries?
- ARely on the provider's SOC 2 report as the transfer basis
- BPrint a paper copy of each record and store it locally
- CRequire the provider to publish a monthly uptime report for all regions
- DUse a valid transfer mechanism such as standard contractual clauses
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Correct answer: DGDPR Chapter V requires a lawful transfer basis, such as an adequacy decision or appropriate safeguards like standard contractual clauses, for transfers outside the EU. A SOC 2 report is an audit attestation rather than a transfer mechanism, and uptime reporting and paper copies do not address the transfer rules.
Organization Management (3 questions)
Question 10
Finance discovers several cloud subscriptions it paid for, but no security team member knew they existed or who owned them. Which organizational control would most directly have prevented this gap?
- AQuarterly penetration tests of the main production application
- BA central inventory of cloud accounts with named owners
- CAnnual security awareness training for all developers
- DMandatory use of one cloud provider across departments
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Correct answer: BA central inventory of cloud accounts with named owners makes every subscription visible and accountable for security. Penetration tests, training, and single-provider rules are useful practices, but none of them would reveal unknown subscriptions or who is responsible for them.
Question 11
An engineer who can create production cloud resources is also able to approve the change request that deploys them. A security reviewer wants this combination removed. Which principle does the reviewer's request apply?
- ALeast privilege for every administrative account in use
- BDefense in depth across cloud layers
- CSeparation of duties between request and approval
- DSecurity through obscurity of resource names
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Correct answer: CSeparation of duties ensures that no single person can both perform a sensitive action and approve it. Least privilege limits what an account can do but does not split the request and approval steps, while defense in depth and obscurity address different concerns.
Question 12
Before signing with a new SaaS vendor that will hold customer records, a security team reviews the vendor's certifications, security questionnaire answers, data handling terms, and breach notification commitments. Which process is this?
- ACapacity planning for the new SaaS platform
- BPenetration testing of the vendor's production systems
- CThird-party risk management due diligence
- DIncident post-mortem after a vendor outage
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Correct answer: CThird-party risk management due diligence evaluates a supplier's security posture and contract terms before and during the relationship. Penetration testing looks for technical flaws rather than contract terms, capacity planning concerns performance, and a post-mortem happens after an incident.
Identity & Access Management (3 questions)
Question 13
A company wants employees to sign in to a new cloud application with their corporate directory credentials, while the application never stores those passwords. Which approach best meets this requirement?
- ALocal user accounts created separately in each application
- BFederated single sign-on using SAML or OpenID Connect
- CHard-coded API keys stored in the application source code
- DShared service account with a password stored in a wiki
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Correct answer: BFederated single sign-on delegates authentication to the corporate identity provider, so the application receives assertions or tokens rather than passwords. Shared accounts, local accounts, and embedded keys all add credential sprawl and do not rely on the corporate directory.
Question 14
Which statement correctly describes OAuth 2.0?
- AAn authentication protocol that issues signed identity tokens to every client application
- BA directory service that stores user passwords centrally
- CAn authorization framework that grants limited access to resources on a user's behalf
- DA symmetric encryption standard for protecting data at rest
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Correct answer: COAuth 2.0 is a delegated authorization framework that issues tokens granting scoped access to a resource. Issuing identity assertions is the job of OpenID Connect, which sits on top of OAuth 2.0, while directory services and encryption standards are unrelated to OAuth's role.
Question 15
A data platform team wants a user's access to a dataset to depend on the user's department, their device compliance state, and the dataset's sensitivity label, without creating a new role for every combination. Which access control model fits best?
- AAttribute-based access control evaluating policy attributes
- BRole-based access control with a fixed set of roles
- CDiscretionary access control where dataset owners decide and share freely
- DA single shared administrator account for all datasets
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Correct answer: AAttribute-based access control evaluates attributes of the user, resource, and context against policy, so it avoids a role explosion. Role-based control keys on roles alone, discretionary control lets owners decide without central policy, and a shared admin account removes accountability entirely.
Security Monitoring (3 questions)
Question 16
An investigator tries to build one timeline from logs of a cloud load balancer, several virtual machines, and an identity service, but the event times disagree by several minutes and the sequence is unclear. Which configuration would most directly fix this problem?
- ASynchronize all log sources to one trusted time source
- BEncrypt each log stream with its own separately managed key
- CTurn off logging for high-volume services to save space
- DRaise the maximum size of each log file
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Correct answer: AConsistent timestamps depend on every log source using the same trusted clock, typically through NTP. Larger log files, encryption keys, or reduced logging do not correct clock skew, and turning logging off actually removes evidence.
Question 17
What is the primary purpose of a security information and event management (SIEM) platform in a cloud environment?
- AHolding encryption keys for customer workloads
- BAutomatically patching guest operating systems
- CCollecting and correlating security events from many sources
- DReplacing the identity provider used for single sign-on across apps
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Correct answer: CA SIEM aggregates logs and events from many sources and correlates them to detect and alert on threats. Key management, patch management, and identity services are separate functions that a SIEM does not perform.
Question 18
An attacker with stolen console credentials creates a new administrator user in a cloud account. Which log source would most directly show that management action, including who did it and when?
- AWeb server access logs from a public application
- BDatabase slow query logs for the reporting tool
- CDisk usage metrics for the backup volume
- DAudit logs of control plane API calls
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Correct answer: DControl plane audit logs record management API calls such as creating users or changing permissions, along with the caller identity and time. Web access, slow query, and disk usage records describe application or resource activity and would not show the identity change.
Infrastructure & Networking (2 questions)
Question 19
Which statement correctly contrasts stateful and stateless packet filtering?
- AStateful filters evaluate each packet alone, while stateless filters track sessions
- BStateful filters track connections so replies to allowed sessions pass
- CStateless filters are always more secure because they keep no session data
- DBoth types need a separate rule for every return packet of a session
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Correct answer: BA stateful filter records connection state, so reply traffic for an allowed session matches without its own rule. The first option reverses the two behaviours, the third claims stateless filtering is always safer, and the fourth ignores what state tracking does.
Question 20
A security architect finds that a compromised web server in a cloud virtual network could reach a database server and an internal admin host without any reason. Which control best limits this lateral movement?
- APublic IP addresses on every workload for easier access
- BA single shared administrator password across all hosts
- CDisabling host firewalls to simplify troubleshooting
- DMicro-segmentation with workload-level allow policies
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Correct answer: DMicro-segmentation restricts east-west traffic so each workload can reach only the services it needs, which blocks unnecessary paths between tiers. Public addresses, shared passwords, and disabled firewalls all widen reachability or weaken control instead of narrowing it.
Cloud Workload Security (2 questions)
Question 21
Why does a container usually present a different isolation boundary than a virtual machine running on the same host?
- AContainers run on separate physical hardware for each container instance
- BContainers share the host kernel, while each VM runs its own guest kernel
- CContainers cannot be scanned for known vulnerabilities in their images
- DEach VM shares one kernel among all guests on the same host
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Correct answer: BContainers isolate processes within a shared host kernel, whereas a VM includes its own guest kernel behind a hypervisor boundary. The other options invert the kernel relationship or make claims about hardware and scanning that are not true of containers.
Question 22
A serverless function that resizes images only needs to read one storage bucket, but its execution role can read every bucket in the account. Which principle is being violated, and what is the best fix?
- ASeparation of duties; move the buckets into another account
- BAvailability; allocate more memory to the function runtime
- CDefense in depth; add a second encryption layer and more logging to the buckets
- DLeast privilege; scope the function role to the one bucket it needs
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Correct answer: DLeast privilege requires the function's role to grant only the access its task needs, so narrowing the role to one bucket fixes the exposure. Separation of duties, defense in depth, and availability are real principles, but none of the other options describes the over-broad permission or fixes it.
Data Security (2 questions)
Question 23
A regulated company wants to be able to stop a cloud provider from decrypting its stored data by disabling a key that the company itself controls. Which key arrangement provides this capability?
- ACustomer-managed keys held in a key management service the customer controls
- BProvider-managed default keys that rotate on a fixed schedule
- CEncryption keys stored right alongside the encrypted data in the same storage bucket
- DHard-coded keys compiled into each application binary
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Correct answer: ACustomer-managed keys let the customer disable or revoke a key, which blocks decryption by the provider. Provider-managed keys stay under provider control, and keys stored beside the data or compiled into binaries are exposed and cannot be revoked independently.
Question 24
Which technique replaces a sensitive value with a random surrogate that has no mathematical relationship to the original, and keeps the mapping in a protected lookup store?
- AOne-way hashing of the field values
- BSymmetric encryption of the field values using a shared secret key
- CLossless compression of the data field
- DTokenization with a protected token vault
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Correct answer: DTokenization swaps the sensitive value for a random token, and only the vault can map the token back to the original. Hashing cannot be reversed to recover the value, encryption is reversible mathematically with the key, and compression is not a protection technique.
Application Security (2 questions)
Question 25
A CI/CD pipeline inspects the open-source libraries bundled into each container image and fails the build when a component has a known critical vulnerability. Which practice does this describe?
- ARuntime application self-protection on the live service
- BDynamic testing of the running production website
- CReviewing an annual external penetration test report
- DSoftware composition analysis in the build pipeline
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Correct answer: DSoftware composition analysis inventories third-party components and checks them against known vulnerabilities, and running it in the pipeline shifts that check earlier. Runtime protection, dynamic testing of production, and annual pen test reviews all act later in the lifecycle and do not inspect bundled libraries at build time.
Question 26
Which secure development activity identifies likely attacks on a planned application by mapping its assets, trust boundaries, and data flows before much code is written?
- AStatic code analysis of completed modules
- BLoad testing against the production capacity
- CThreat modeling during the design phase
- DVulnerability scanning of production hosts
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Correct answer: CThreat modeling examines design artifacts such as data flows and trust boundaries to find threats early, when fixes are cheapest. Static analysis works on written code, load testing measures capacity, and scanning production hosts finds issues only after deployment.
Incident Response & Resilience (2 questions)
Question 27
A customer's responders need forensic evidence from a multi-tenant SaaS platform after a suspected account compromise. The provider does not allow access to its physical hosts. Which approach is most practical?
- ADemand physical access to the provider's data center
- BImage the provider's hypervisor hosts directly to capture memory
- CUse exported logs and forensic support rights from the contract
- DWait for the provider's next annual audit before starting the investigation
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Correct answer: CIn multi-tenant SaaS, customers usually work through logs, exports, and support terms that the contract defines, since host-level access would expose other tenants. Demanding data center access, imaging shared hypervisors, or waiting for an annual audit are not realistic or timely responses.
Question 28
What does a recovery point objective (RPO) define for a cloud service?
- AThe maximum tolerable time needed to restore service after an outage
- BThe maximum acceptable amount of data loss, measured in time
- CThe percentage of uptime promised in the service level agreement
- DThe number of backup copies kept in another region
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Correct answer: BRPO sets how much recent data the organization can afford to lose, expressed as an interval before the failure. Restore time is the recovery time objective (RTO), uptime percentage is an SLA figure, and backup count is a retention choice rather than a recovery target.
Related Technologies & Strategies (2 questions)
Question 29
Which two statements describe core Zero Trust principles? (Choose two.)
- ANever trust, always verify each access request
- BTrust traffic that originates inside the corporate perimeter
- CAssume breach and limit the blast radius of any compromise
- DGrant standing administrator rights to speed up operations
- ERely on one network-wide VPN as the main control
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Correct answer: A, CZero Trust verifies every request using identity, device, and context, and it assumes compromise so that access is limited and segmented. Trusting internal traffic, standing admin rights, and a single VPN as the main control all contradict those principles.
Question 30
Which risk is most specific to a cloud application that passes untrusted user text to a large language model, where the text could override the model's intended instructions?
- APrompt injection through untrusted input
- BExpired TLS certificates on the load balancer
- CUnpatched kernel modules on the hypervisor layer
- DDuplicate DNS records within a hosted zone
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Correct answer: APrompt injection occurs when crafted input changes how the model follows its instructions, so it is specific to AI-enabled applications. Expired certificates, unpatched hypervisor modules, and duplicate DNS records are general infrastructure issues unrelated to how a model interprets input.