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Free Certificate of Competence in Zero Trust (CCZT) practice test: 30 questions with answers

30 original questions for Certificate of Competence in Zero Trust (CCZT), drawn from every topic area. Answer each one to see whether you got it right and why. No sign-up.

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Certificate of Competence in Zero Trust (CCZT) exam guide: topics, cost and format

All 30 Certificate of Competence in Zero Trust (CCZT) questions with answers

The same questions as the test above, grouped by exam topic. Open any question to see the answer and explanation.

Foundational Zero Trust concepts (5 questions)

  1. Question 1

    A company relies on a hardened perimeter firewall. Once an employee connects to the office LAN, they can reach file servers, finance databases, and admin consoles without any further checks. Which zero trust principle is most directly violated by this design?

    1. AEncryption of data at rest on the file servers
    2. BRegular patching of operating system software on the file servers
    3. CImplicit trust given to requests from inside the network
    4. DSeparation of duties between finance staff and IT administrators
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: C

    Zero trust removes implicit trust based on network location, so every request must be authenticated and authorized wherever it originates. Encryption at rest, patching, and separation of duties are sound controls, but the flaw in this scenario is that the LAN itself is treated as trusted.

  2. Question 2

    Which statement best describes the zero trust principle of assuming breach?

    1. ABreaches are inevitable, so preventive controls such as authentication can be dropped
    2. BEvery incident must be escalated to the board before any containment step starts
    3. CSystems are secure once they pass one initial review and need no later checks
    4. DAttackers may already be inside, so controls must limit damage and detect misuse
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: D

    Assuming breach means designing as if an attacker may already be present, so segmentation, least privilege, and monitoring limit damage and expose misuse. The other options either drop preventive controls or assume systems stay secure without verification, which contradicts zero trust.

  3. Question 3

    Which two statements describe core zero trust tenets from NIST SP 800-207? (Choose two.)

    1. ANetwork location alone is not sufficient to grant trust to a requester
    2. BTrust is established once at login and remains valid for the whole workday
    3. CAccess to each resource is granted per session under a dynamic policy
    4. DOnly traffic that crosses the internet boundary needs to be encrypted
    5. EDevice security posture is assessed only when the device is first onboarded
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: A, C

    NIST SP 800-207 states that network location does not imply trust and that access to resources is granted per session according to dynamic policy. The other statements describe static trust, perimeter-only encryption, and one-time posture checks, all of which zero trust rejects.

  4. Question 4

    A contractor's laptop passes a device compliance check and signs in with valid credentials. The contractor's account has standing administrator rights that were granted just in case. Which zero trust principle should the team apply to reduce this risk?

    1. APerimeter firewall rules that allow the contractor's entire subnet
    2. BSingle sign-on across all business applications the contractor uses
    3. CLong-lived shared API keys that every contractor on the project can use
    4. DLeast privilege with just-in-time elevation for administrative tasks
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: D

    Least privilege with just-in-time elevation gives the contractor only the rights needed, only when they are needed, which removes standing admin exposure. Subnet-wide firewall rules and shared keys grant broad, long-lived access, and single sign-on improves convenience without limiting privilege.

  5. Question 5

    A company's remote staff connect through a VPN that places each user on the corporate network, where they can reach dozens of internal subnets. Which change best reflects zero trust?

    1. AAdding a second VPN concentrator in another region for redundancy and failover
    2. BPer-application access so each user reaches only services they need
    3. CRequiring a longer VPN password rotation interval for all remote staff
    4. DAllowing VPN users to skip the MFA prompt on laptops that are marked trusted
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: B

    Zero trust replaces network-wide reachability with access to individual applications, so each user reaches only the services their role requires. A second concentrator improves availability, a longer password interval changes nothing about what users can reach, and skipping MFA removes verification entirely.

Zero Trust architecture (5 questions)

  1. Question 6

    In NIST SP 800-207, which logical component is responsible for deciding whether a subject may access a resource?

    1. AIdentity provider that issues and stores user credentials for applications
    2. BPolicy Enforcement Point that opens and closes the data path
    3. CPolicy Administrator that sets up and tears down the communication path
    4. DPolicy Engine that weighs policy and trust signals per request
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: D

    The Policy Engine is the decision component in NIST SP 800-207, using policy and trust signals to grant or deny access. The Policy Enforcement Point carries out decisions on the data path, the Policy Administrator establishes or ends the session, and an identity provider is a supporting source of identity data rather than one of the three logical components.

  2. Question 7

    A company is drawing its zero trust design. The team needs a component that sits between a user device and an application, enables and monitors each connection, and can terminate it when policy changes. Which component should they specify?

    1. APolicy Engine that scores trust and decides on each request
    2. BPolicy Enforcement Point positioned in front of the resource
    3. CContinuous monitoring dashboard that aggregates security telemetry
    4. DEnterprise Resource Catalog that tags each application by sensitivity
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: B

    The Policy Enforcement Point enables, monitors, and terminates connections between a subject and a resource based on decisions from the Policy Engine. The Policy Engine makes the decision rather than carrying it out, and the catalog and dashboard are supporting functions outside the core logical components.

  3. Question 8

    In NIST SP 800-207, which pairing of components makes up the control plane?

    1. APolicy Enforcement Point and Policy Administrator
    2. BSubject such as a user or device, together with the Policy Engine
    3. CPolicy Enforcement Point and enterprise resource
    4. DPolicy Engine and Policy Administrator
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: D

    The Policy Engine and Policy Administrator form the control plane in NIST SP 800-207, where decisions and session setup occur. The Policy Enforcement Point, the subject, and the resource all belong to the data plane, so every other pairing includes a data plane element.

  4. Question 9

    A bank wants no internal application to trust a request just because it comes from a branch office network. Its design sends every request to an internal application through a gateway that checks user identity and device posture before forwarding it. Which zero trust concept does this design primarily illustrate?

    1. ASegmentation of the network into VLANs by department number only
    2. BCentralized aggregation of firewall logs for quarterly review
    3. CHardening the base operating system image used across branch servers
    4. DPolicy enforcement at a gateway in front of each internal resource
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: D

    Routing every request through a gateway that checks identity and device posture is policy enforcement at a point in front of the resource, which is the core zero trust pattern. VLAN segmentation, log aggregation, and OS hardening are useful controls, but none of them checks each request before forwarding it.

  5. Question 10

    In NIST SP 800-207, which deployment model places gateway components around a group of resources, so that access to the whole group is mediated?

    1. AEnclave-based deployment with gateways protecting a set of related resources
    2. BDevice application sandboxing that isolates each application running on the endpoint device
    3. CPerimeter-only deployment that relies on the data center firewall alone
    4. DDevice agent-only model that has no gateway in the access path at all
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: A

    Enclave-based deployment places gateway components in front of a group of resources, mediating access to the whole enclave. Sandboxing isolates applications on endpoints, perimeter-only designs rely on the firewall alone, and an agent-only model removes the gateway that the deployment depends on.

Software Defined Perimeter (4 questions)

  1. Question 11

    What is the primary role of the SDP controller in a software defined perimeter architecture?

    1. AIt authenticates hosts and tells accepting hosts which clients may connect
    2. BIt relays all application payload traffic between users and services
    3. CIt stores encrypted copies of every user's application passwords
    4. DIt replaces endpoint security agents so managed devices need no local software at all
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: A

    In SDP the controller authenticates initiating and accepting hosts and tells each accepting host which clients are allowed to connect, while application data flows directly between the two hosts. The controller does not relay payloads, store passwords, or remove the need for endpoint security.

  2. Question 12

    A security engineer finds that a legacy application's login port answers port scans from the internet. The team wants the service to stay invisible to unauthorized hosts. Which SDP feature best addresses this?

    1. ASource address allowlisting of the office IP ranges on the public interface
    2. BVerbose application logging that records every failed login attempt
    3. CSingle Packet Authorization so unauthenticated packets get no response
    4. DMoving the application to a public address on a much wider port range
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: C

    Single Packet Authorization keeps the accepting host silent until a valid authorized packet arrives, which hides the service from scanners. Logging only records attempts after exposure, IP allowlisting still trusts network location rather than verified identity, and a wider port range increases exposure.

  3. Question 13

    Which two statements describe how an SDP connection is admitted? (Choose two.)

    1. AThe initiating host sends an authorization packet before the service port answers
    2. BThe accepting host publishes its service ports so clients can discover them
    3. CThe controller relays application payloads between the client and the service
    4. DThe controller authenticates the client before the accepting host admits it
    5. EClients reach services over the internet and verify identity afterward
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: A, D

    In SDP the initiating host sends a single packet authorization to the accepting host, and the controller authenticates the client before the accepting host admits it. Accepting hosts do not publish their ports, the controller does not relay application traffic, and identity is never verified only after access is granted.

  4. Question 14

    Which statement best describes the default-deny posture of a software defined perimeter?

    1. AAll traffic is allowed unless a security analyst later blocks it
    2. BServices stay hidden and each connection needs verified identity first
    3. CUsers are trusted on the internal network and only outbound traffic is restricted
    4. DEvery connection attempt is logged and then allowed if certificates validate
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: B

    Under default deny, services stay dark and no connection is admitted until the client's identity and authorization are verified for that session. The other options describe allow-first policies, implicit internal trust, or certificate checks alone, none of which match default deny.

Zero Trust strategy (4 questions)

  1. Question 15

    A CISO wants to start a zero trust program next quarter. Which first step best aligns the strategy with the organization's goals?

    1. AReplace every firewall with ZTNA appliances during the current quarter
    2. BBuy one zero trust product that claims complete coverage of the whole estate
    3. CMap critical data and services to business goals, with executive sponsorship
    4. DStart with advanced micro-segmentation tooling before reviewing any assets
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: C

    Aligning zero trust with business goals, starting from the most critical data and services, and securing executive sponsorship gives the program direction and funding. Replacing firewalls, buying a single product, or buying tooling before knowing the assets all skip the planning the strategy depends on.

  2. Question 16

    Why do many zero trust strategies begin with a protect surface instead of trying to protect the whole enterprise network at once?

    1. ALegal rules forbid protecting the network perimeter once zero trust is adopted
    2. BA narrow set of high-value assets lets teams focus controls where risk is highest
    3. CThe protect surface removes the need for logging, monitoring, and incident response
    4. DOnly the largest data centers can be included in any zero trust strategy
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: B

    The protect surface is the set of data, applications, assets, and services that matter most, so focusing controls there reduces risk fastest and produces early results. The other options invent legal limits or size requirements, or falsely claim that zero trust removes monitoring.

  3. Question 17

    Which two elements should a zero trust strategy document to guide long-term investment? (Choose two.)

    1. AA phased roadmap with measurable milestones tied to business outcomes
    2. BA fixed list of every vendor product the organization will buy
    3. CNamed owners and accountability for each control domain
    4. DA commitment to retire all legacy systems within the first thirty days
    5. EThe default configuration guide from the firewall vendor
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: A, C

    A strategy sets a phased roadmap with measurable milestones and names accountable owners for each control domain. A strategy should stay vendor-neutral because product selection belongs in implementation planning, and unrealistic retirement deadlines or a vendor configuration guide are not strategy elements.

  4. Question 18

    A zero trust program stalls because application owners see it as an IT security project with no benefit to their business. Which action best addresses this?

    1. ARequire every application owner to deploy required agents within one week, without exceptions
    2. BFrame zero trust as business risk reduction with outcome metrics tied to business goals
    3. CKeep the program budget hidden from business units until the final rollout
    4. DDelay all stakeholder communication until the final rollout is complete
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: B

    Presenting zero trust as risk reduction, with outcome metrics that matter to each business owner, builds the support and funding the program needs. Forcing agents without explanation, hiding the budget, and delaying communication all undermine that buy-in.

Zero Trust planning (4 questions)

  1. Question 19

    During planning, a team finds several legacy applications that have no documented owner and no data classification. What should happen first?

    1. AAssign owners and classify the data, since policy decisions depend on both
    2. BGrant unrestricted access until classification is complete, to avoid outages
    3. CMigrate the applications to a new cloud platform before anything else
    4. DRemove the applications from scope permanently and stop reviewing them
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: A

    Zero trust policies depend on knowing what a resource is, who is accountable for it, and how sensitive its data is, so ownership and classification come first. Unrestricted access, a migration, or permanent removal from scope either skip these steps or create new risk.

  2. Question 20

    What is the main purpose of mapping transaction flows during zero trust planning?

    1. ATo see which subjects reach which resources, so policies follow real traffic
    2. BTo catalog every employee's home address and vehicle for physical security reviews
    3. CTo measure link bandwidth so the team can order more capacity
    4. DTo produce the marketing timeline for the executive launch presentation
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: A

    Transaction flow mapping shows which users, devices, and services actually communicate with which resources, so teams can design policies and segment boundaries from real traffic. Bandwidth planning, personal data cataloging, and marketing schedules are unrelated to that purpose.

  3. Question 21

    Which two activities are most useful when planning a zero trust pilot? (Choose two.)

    1. AScheduling the pilot to cover every business unit in the same week
    2. BSelecting a bounded user group and application set with clear success criteria
    3. CTurning on blocking mode for every policy on the first day
    4. DDefining a monitoring baseline and rollback steps before enforcement starts
    5. ETurning off audit logging so the pilot runs with less overhead
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: B, D

    A pilot should have a bounded scope with measurable success criteria, plus a monitoring baseline and rollback steps defined before enforcement begins. Covering every unit at once, enforcing everywhere immediately, or disabling audit logs removes the controlled learning a pilot exists to provide.

  4. Question 22

    A planning team must choose where a zero trust rollout starts. Which candidate is the most sensible first target?

    1. AThe entire global network at once across every region, with enforcement on day one
    2. BA small, well-understood application with sensitive customer data and an owner
    3. CAn experimental system with no owner, no logs, and no documentation
    4. DThe oldest mainframe workload, whose dependencies nobody has mapped
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: B

    A small, well-understood application with a named owner lets the team learn and tune policies on a bounded scope, and its sensitive data makes the result meaningful. Enforcing everywhere at once, or starting with systems that have no owner or unmapped dependencies, creates avoidable outage and blind-spot risk.

Zero Trust implementation (4 questions)

  1. Question 23

    An implementation team wants to enforce device posture checks, but some managed laptops lack the endpoint agent. Which approach reflects sound implementation practice?

    1. AStage enforcement, find non-compliant devices, and give them a remediation path
    2. BGive non-compliant managed laptops full access because they are company property
    3. CLet users bring personal devices in without any posture checks at all
    4. DTurn off device checks for everyone to avoid complaints from users
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: A

    Staged enforcement lets the team identify non-compliant devices, route them to remediation, and then block access with less disruption. Disabling checks, granting full access to non-compliant laptops, or waiving checks for personal devices removes the control the design is meant to enforce.

  2. Question 24

    Which implementation practice most directly reduces the blast radius of a compromised workload?

    1. AOpening more ports on each server so monitoring tools can reach them
    2. BMicro-segmentation that limits east-west traffic to the flows each workload needs
    3. CPlacing all workloads on one flat subnet to simplify routing and reduce management overhead
    4. DDisabling authentication on internal services to reduce request latency
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: B

    Micro-segmentation confines a compromised workload to the flows it legitimately needs, so lateral movement is limited. Opening extra ports, flattening the network, or removing authentication each widens what an attacker can reach.

  3. Question 25

    Which three controls are typical of an initial zero trust implementation for user access? (Choose three.)

    1. AShared administrator accounts so support staff can respond faster
    2. BPhishing-resistant multi-factor authentication for privileged accounts
    3. CConditional access rules that weigh device health and sign-in risk
    4. DDisabling audit logs to save storage on the identity platform
    5. ELeast-privilege roles mapped to each application and job function
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: B, C, E

    Phishing-resistant MFA for privileged accounts, conditional access that weighs device health and sign-in risk, and least-privilege roles mapped to job functions are standard early controls for user access. Shared administrator accounts and disabled audit logs weaken the accountability and visibility that zero trust depends on.

  4. Question 26

    After a successful pilot, a team wants to extend zero trust policies to more applications. Which approach is best?

    1. AExpand every policy to all applications at once since the pilot succeeded
    2. BStop monitoring the pilot so that its resources can support the rollout
    3. CExpand in phases and tune policies using pilot metrics on false positives
    4. DCopy the pilot policies to every application without reviewing their needs
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: C

    Phased expansion that tunes policies with pilot metrics such as false positives and access failures keeps disruption manageable and improves each wave. Expanding everything at once, stopping monitoring, or copying policies without review each remove the learning or the fit that a sound rollout relies on.

NIST and CISA best practices (4 questions)

  1. Question 27

    Which executive action directs US federal agencies to adopt a zero trust architecture?

    1. ANIST SP 800-53 Revision 5 security and privacy control catalog
    2. BNIST SP 800-63 digital identity guidelines for authentication
    3. CExecutive Order 14028 on improving the nation's cybersecurity
    4. DCISA Known Exploited Vulnerabilities catalog for patch priorities
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: C

    Executive Order 14028, issued in 2021, directs federal agencies to move toward zero trust architecture. The NIST control catalog, the digital identity guidelines, and the CISA vulnerability catalog are valuable references, but none of them is the directive that set the adoption requirement.

  2. Question 28

    What is the core purpose of the CISA Zero Trust Maturity Model?

    1. AA staged way to measure progress across pillars such as identity and devices
    2. BA certification program that approves vendor products as fully zero trust compliant
    3. CA replacement for NIST SP 800-207 built from a list of firewall rules
    4. DA budget template that assigns penetration testing funds to each agency
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: A

    The CISA Zero Trust Maturity Model gives agencies maturity stages for measuring progress across its pillars. It does not certify products, replace NIST SP 800-207, or allocate testing budgets.

  3. Question 29

    An agency's zero trust maturity review finds gaps in endpoint health tracking and managed device inventory. Which pillar of the CISA Zero Trust Maturity Model covers these gaps?

    1. ADevices, covering endpoint health and asset inventory
    2. BPhysical facility access controls for data centers
    3. CVendor onboarding workflows for new procurement
    4. DHardware refresh cycle planning for servers across all regional offices
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: A

    The Devices pillar of the CISA model covers endpoint health, asset inventory, and device compliance, which is where these gaps sit. Vendor onboarding, facility access, and hardware refresh planning are real operational topics but do not belong to any of the model's five pillars.

  4. Question 30

    An agency has strong identity controls but weak logging, so it cannot tell whether its zero trust policies are working across pillars. Which CISA cross-cutting capability addresses this gap?

    1. AAutomation and orchestration of policy changes across many systems
    2. BNetwork address translation tuning for legacy application traffic
    3. CVisibility and analytics for monitoring policy effectiveness
    4. DBudget forecasting for future pillar upgrades across departments
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: C

    Visibility and analytics is a cross-cutting capability in the CISA model that supplies the logging and telemetry needed to confirm whether policies work. Automation and orchestration is also cross-cutting, but it acts on signals rather than producing the visibility the agency lacks, and NAT tuning and budget forecasting are unrelated.