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Free CWNA-110 practice test: 30 questions with answers

30 original questions for Certified Wireless Network Administrator (CWNA), drawn from every topic area. Answer each one to see whether you got it right and why. No sign-up.

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CWNA-110 exam guide: topics, cost and format

All 30 CWNA-110 questions with answers

The same questions as the test above, grouped by exam topic. Open any question to see the answer and explanation.

WLAN Regulations and Standards (5 questions)

  1. Question 1

    Which statement correctly describes the role of one of the organizations that shape WLAN technology?

    1. AIETF publishes the IEEE 802.11 MAC and PHY amendments that vendors must follow
    2. BIEEE publishes RFC documents that define RADIUS and CAPWAP
    3. CWi-Fi Alliance runs Wi-Fi CERTIFIED interoperability testing programs
    4. DThe FCC writes the 802.11 frame formats used by vendors
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: C

    The IEEE publishes the 802.11 amendments, the IETF publishes RFCs such as those for RADIUS and CAPWAP, and the Wi-Fi Alliance certifies interoperability. The FCC sets spectrum rules in the United States rather than defining frame formats, so the other options misassign these roles.

  2. Question 2

    Which amendment operates in the 2.4 GHz band using OFDM at rates up to 54 Mbps while remaining backward compatible with 802.11b devices?

    1. A802.11a, which operates only in the 5 GHz band
    2. B802.11b, which uses HR-DSSS up to 11 Mbps
    3. C802.11g, which uses ERP-OFDM in 2.4 GHz
    4. D802.11ac, which operates in the 5 GHz band
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: C

    802.11g added ERP-OFDM to the 2.4 GHz band with rates up to 54 Mbps and interoperates with 802.11b. 802.11a is OFDM but only in 5 GHz, 802.11b tops out at 11 Mbps, and 802.11ac is a 5 GHz-only amendment.

  3. Question 3

    Which 802.11 amendment introduced OFDMA, which lets an access point serve several stations in a single transmission by assigning them subchannel resource units?

    1. A802.11a
    2. B802.11ax
    3. C802.11ac
    4. D802.11n
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: B

    802.11ax, marketed as Wi-Fi 6, added OFDMA for multi-user scheduling on resource units. 802.11a introduced OFDM itself, 802.11n added MIMO and channel bonding, and 802.11ac widened channels and added downlink MU-MIMO, so none of those introduced OFDMA.

  4. Question 4

    A site plans 802.11be (Wi-Fi 7) clients in the 6 GHz band and wants the widest channel the standard defines for those links. Which channel width should the design use?

    1. A80 MHz
    2. B320 MHz
    3. C160 MHz
    4. D40 MHz
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: B

    802.11be introduced 320 MHz channels for use in the 6 GHz band. 160 MHz was already the widest width in 802.11ax, while 80 MHz and 40 MHz are narrower widths that predate Wi-Fi 6.

  5. Question 5

    Which two statements about the 2.4 GHz band in the United States are correct? (Choose two.)

    1. AChannels 1, 6, and 11 are the usual non-overlapping choices for 20 MHz channels
    2. BThe default channel width is 80 MHz on every 802.11 generation
    3. CThe band is part of the unlicensed industrial, scientific, and medical spectrum
    4. DDynamic frequency selection is mandatory on every 2.4 GHz channel
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: A, C

    In the United States, channels 1, 6, and 11 are the common 20 MHz set that does not overlap, and 2.4 GHz is part of the unlicensed ISM spectrum. A default 80 MHz width and mandatory DFS on 2.4 GHz are both wrong, since DFS applies to specific 5 GHz channels shared with radar.

WLAN Protocols and Devices (5 questions)

  1. Question 6

    A laptop powers on and sends probe request frames on several channels to look for networks it knows. What is the laptop doing?

    1. ARequesting an IP address from DHCP
    2. BSending QoS data to the access point
    3. CCompleting open system authentication
    4. DActively scanning for available networks
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: D

    Probe requests are management frames a station sends during active scanning to discover networks. DHCP runs after association, authentication comes after a network is chosen, and QoS data frames carry user payloads, so those three options describe other stages.

  2. Question 7

    A campus has several access points that share one SSID and are joined by a wired distribution system, letting clients roam between them. Which service set describes this arrangement?

    1. ABasic Service Set (BSS) on one access point
    2. BIndependent Basic Service Set (IBSS) formed directly between peer stations
    3. CHotspot 2.0 network with no distribution system
    4. DExtended Service Set (ESS) joined by a distribution system
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: D

    An ESS combines multiple BSSs that share an SSID and connect through a distribution system, which is what allows roaming. A BSS is a single AP cell, an IBSS is an ad hoc group with no AP, and Hotspot 2.0 is a Passpoint feature rather than a service set.

  3. Question 8

    In an 802.11 infrastructure BSS, what does the BSSID identify?

    1. AThe MAC address of the access point radio that serves the BSS
    2. BThe human-readable network name clients see in beacons
    3. CThe passphrase clients enter when joining a WPA2 network
    4. DThe channel number the access point is currently using for transmission
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: A

    The BSSID is the MAC address of the access point radio that forms the BSS, while the SSID is the network name. The passphrase and the channel number are separate settings and do not identify the BSS.

  4. Question 9

    A packet capture shows an access point sending a frame at a regular interval that carries the SSID, supported rates, and traffic indication information. Which frame category does this belong to?

    1. AControl frame
    2. BData frame
    3. CTrigger frame
    4. DManagement frame
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: D

    Beacons are management frames that advertise the SSID, supported rates, and TIM information. Control frames such as RTS, CTS, and ACK, including trigger frames, coordinate medium access, and data frames carry user traffic.

  5. Question 10

    Two clients on opposite sides of a room can each hear the access point but not each other. When both transmit at the same time, their frames collide at the access point. Which mechanism is designed to reduce this hidden node problem?

    1. ARTS/CTS exchange that sets the NAV for other stations
    2. BWMM voice queue that gives voice frames a priority advantage
    3. CPassive scanning that listens for beacons on each channel
    4. DPS-Poll that lets a power-saving client retrieve frames the access point buffered
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: A

    The access point's CTS is heard by the hidden client, which sets its network allocation vector and defers transmission, reducing collisions. WMM prioritization, passive scanning, and PS-Poll do not stop simultaneous transmissions from hidden stations.

RF Validation and Remediation (5 questions)

  1. Question 11

    A site has intermittent slowdowns, and packet captures show long gaps with no Wi-Fi frames at all. The team wants to see RF energy from any source, including non-Wi-Fi devices. Which tool should they use?

    1. AA protocol analyzer that decodes 802.11 management, control, and data frames in monitor mode
    2. BA ping test from a client to the default gateway
    3. CThe access point's DHCP lease table
    4. DA spectrum analyzer that displays RF energy by frequency and time
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: D

    A spectrum analyzer shows energy across frequency and time regardless of protocol, which reveals non-Wi-Fi interferers. A protocol analyzer only decodes 802.11 frames, and ping results and DHCP lease tables say nothing about RF energy.

  2. Question 12

    Which description best defines a predictive site survey?

    1. ARecording existing signals and noise on site without transmitting any test traffic
    2. BTesting throughput against live APs and clients after the network is deployed
    3. CReviewing packet captures gathered from user complaints to find failed associations
    4. DSoftware modeling of expected coverage from floor plans before installation
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: D

    A predictive survey models RF coverage in software before deployment, using floor plans and attenuation values for building materials. Recording existing signals is a passive survey, testing live APs is an active survey, and reviewing captures is troubleshooting after the fact.

  3. Question 13

    An access point on a 5 GHz DFS channel near an airport drops clients every few minutes and moves to a different channel. Which cause is most likely?

    1. ARadar detected on the DFS channel, which requires the AP to vacate it
    2. BMicrowave oven emissions in the 2.4 GHz band
    3. CBluetooth frequency hopping within the 2.4 GHz band
    4. DCo-channel traffic from a neighboring access point on channel 36
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: A

    DFS channels share spectrum with radar, and an AP that detects radar must stop using the channel and move elsewhere. Microwave ovens and Bluetooth are 2.4 GHz sources, and a neighbor on channel 36 is a non-DFS channel that does not force a DFS vacate.

  4. Question 14

    A client stays associated to a distant access point for a long time, even though a closer AP on the same SSID has a much stronger signal. Which problem does this describe?

    1. AHidden node collisions between two clients
    2. BAdjacent-channel interference caused by a neighboring access point on overlapping channels
    3. CSticky client behavior, where the client holds onto a weak association
    4. DA DFS radar event that forces a channel change
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: C

    Sticky clients keep a weak association because their driver does not roam when a better AP is available. Hidden node collisions, adjacent-channel interference, and DFS vacating produce other symptoms, such as retries or channel changes, rather than this association pattern.

  5. Question 15

    Which three actions help verify a deployed WLAN against its design requirements? (Choose three.)

    1. AMeasure signal levels and coverage at the locations listed in the design
    2. BCompare the installed AP models against the vendor's marketing brochure
    3. CConfirm that roaming and throughput meet the documented requirements
    4. DTurn off all security features so the tests run faster
    5. ETest critical applications such as voice from representative client devices
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: A, C, E

    Verification measures coverage, roaming, throughput, and application behavior against the documented requirements, using representative clients. Comparing hardware with marketing claims and disabling security do not show that the design meets its requirements.

Radio Frequency (RF) Technologies (5 questions)

  1. Question 16

    A wireless engineer records a received signal of -70 dBm and a noise floor of -95 dBm at a client location. What is the signal-to-noise ratio at that point?

    1. A25 dB
    2. B-25 dB
    3. C35 dB
    4. D165 dB
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: A

    SNR is the received signal level minus the noise floor, both in dBm, so -70 minus -95 gives 25 dB. The negative value reverses the subtraction, 35 dB is an arithmetic slip, and 165 dB adds the two magnitudes, which has no meaning here.

  2. Question 17

    Which statement about the decibel scale is correct when comparing RF power levels?

    1. AA 3 dB increase roughly halves the power level
    2. BA 10 dB increase adds exactly 10 mW to the signal
    3. CA 3 dB increase roughly doubles the power level
    4. DA 10 dB decrease is the same as adding 10 dBm
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: C

    Decibels express a logarithmic ratio, and an increase of about 3 dB roughly doubles power. The first option reverses that, the second treats decibels as a fixed milliwatt addition, and the third reverses the sign of a decrease.

  3. Question 18

    An access point radio outputs 20 dBm into a cable with 2 dB of loss. The antenna provides 6 dBi of gain. What is the effective isotropic radiated power (EIRP) toward the coverage area?

    1. A24 dBm
    2. B28 dBm
    3. C16 dBm
    4. D12 dBm
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: A

    EIRP equals transmit power minus cable loss plus antenna gain, so 20 minus 2 plus 6 gives 24 dBm. The 28 dBm option adds the cable loss, 16 dBm reverses both the loss and the gain, and 12 dBm subtracts the gain as well as the loss.

  4. Question 19

    A client behind a building corner, with no direct line of sight to the access point, still receives a weak signal. Which RF behavior best explains how that energy reaches the client?

    1. AReflection off a smooth metal surface
    2. BRefraction as the wave passes through a denser material
    3. CDiffraction around an obstacle edge
    4. DAbsorption into the building material
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: C

    Diffraction lets a wavefront bend around the edge of an obstacle, delivering weaker energy into shadowed areas. Reflection and refraction redirect energy along other paths, and absorption removes energy, so none of those three explains a signal wrapping around a corner.

  5. Question 20

    In a warehouse with metal racks, a client shows choppy throughput. Receiver measurements show the same transmission arriving as several delayed, overlapping copies. What is the most likely cause?

    1. AA channel width of 20 MHz set on the access point
    2. BMultipath propagation where reflected copies of the signal arrive late
    3. CA regulatory power limit reducing the transmit power
    4. DPower save mode causing the client to delay its acknowledgments and retries
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: B

    Metal racks reflect the transmitted energy, so delayed copies of the same signal reach the receiver along several paths and can interfere with each other. Channel width, power save behavior, and regulatory power limits do not create delayed copies of an RF signal.

WLAN Network Architecture and Design Concepts (5 questions)

  1. Question 21

    A retailer runs stores with no on-site IT staff. It wants access points to provision themselves from a web portal, with firmware and wireless policies managed centrally over the internet. Which architecture fits best?

    1. AAutonomous access points configured one by one on site
    2. BCloud-managed access points
    3. CAd hoc IBSS peers that run without an access point
    4. DMesh backhaul links back to the headquarters network
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: B

    Cloud-managed APs get configuration and firmware from an internet-hosted platform, which suits sites with no local IT staff. Autonomous APs must be configured on each device, IBSS has no access point at all, and mesh backhaul links APs to each other rather than providing central management.

  2. Question 22

    In a controller-based WLAN with a split-MAC design, which function typically stays on the lightweight access point?

    1. ACentralized policy, VLAN assignment, and fleet-wide firmware management
    2. BStorage of user accounts and their password databases
    3. CReal-time 802.11 functions like beacons and acknowledgments
    4. DScheduling of firmware updates across every site
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: C

    In split-MAC designs, time-critical 802.11 tasks such as beacons, probe responses, and acknowledgments run on the AP, while the controller handles policy, configuration, and firmware. The other options describe controller or server duties, such as central policy and credential storage.

  3. Question 23

    An engineer compares autonomous access points with a controller-based deployment. Which task is usually centralized in the controller-based design?

    1. APhysical mounting and cabling of each access point
    2. BPower injection using a separate PoE injector at each access point
    3. CAntenna selection and mounting bracket choice at each location
    4. DRadio resource management for channels and power levels
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: D

    Controller-based systems typically run radio resource management, which adjusts channels and power levels across many APs from one place. Mounting, cabling, power injection, and antenna choice are physical installation tasks done at each location regardless of architecture.

  4. Question 24

    Which two statements describe autonomous access points? (Choose two.)

    1. AEach access point stores and applies its own configuration
    2. BConfiguration and roaming are coordinated centrally by a controller
    3. CLarge deployments usually require configuring each access point separately
    4. DEvery access point must establish a CAPWAP tunnel to a central appliance
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: A, C

    Autonomous APs keep their configuration locally, so large deployments take more effort to keep consistent. A controller coordinates configuration and roaming in controller-based designs, and CAPWAP tunnels to a central appliance are a lightweight AP feature rather than an autonomous one.

  5. Question 25

    An access point that needs 802.3at (PoE+) power is connected to a switch port that supplies only 802.3af power. The AP boots, but its radios stay off or run with reduced function. What is the most likely cause?

    1. AThe port cannot supply the power class the AP requires
    2. BThe AP's SSID is set to hidden and cannot be seen by the switch
    3. CThe regulatory domain on the switch blocks the PoE negotiation
    4. DThe switch port's VLAN membership blocks the AP's power negotiation
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: A

    PoE+ devices need more power than an 802.3af port budget provides, so the AP may boot on partial power and disable radios. SSID visibility, regulatory domains, and VLAN membership do not control how much power a port delivers.

WLAN Network Security (5 questions)

  1. Question 26

    A small office keeps WEP enabled because one legacy device cannot join a WPA2 network. What is the primary weakness the team should understand?

    1. AWEP uses RC4 with a 24-bit initialization vector that can be exploited
    2. BWEP forces clients to use the older TKIP cipher instead of the stronger CCMP
    3. CWEP cannot carry a pre-shared key longer than eight characters
    4. DWEP blocks legacy devices from receiving DHCP addresses
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: A

    WEP uses RC4 with a 24-bit initialization vector that repeats, and enough captured traffic lets an attacker recover the key. The TKIP, key length, and DHCP options are not the core design flaw of WEP.

  2. Question 27

    What makes the SAE handshake in WPA3-Personal more resistant to offline dictionary attacks than a WPA2-Personal pre-shared key exchange?

    1. AIt encrypts beacon frames so an attacker cannot infer the passphrase from them
    2. BEach password guess requires a live exchange with the AP, not an offline test
    3. CIt removes the need for any 4-way handshake after authentication
    4. DIt uses a longer pre-shared key of 256 bits
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: B

    SAE is a password-authenticated key exchange, so an attacker cannot test each guess offline against a captured handshake the way WPA2-Personal allows. Encrypting beacons does not protect the passphrase, WPA3-Personal still derives session keys with a 4-way handshake, and key length is not what makes SAE resistant.

  3. Question 28

    A team is planning Wi-Fi 6E clients on the 6 GHz band. Which security configuration is acceptable for that band?

    1. AWPA2-Personal using TKIP with management frames left unprotected
    2. BWPA3-Personal or Enhanced Open (OWE) with Protected Management Frames enabled
    3. CWEP with a long static key kept for legacy compatibility
    4. DOpen system authentication with no encryption, kept for compatibility with older devices
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: B

    The 6 GHz band only allows WPA3-based security, meaning SAE in WPA3-Personal or OWE, with Protected Management Frames required. WPA2 with TKIP, WEP, and open authentication without encryption are not acceptable for 6 GHz networks.

  4. Question 29

    A school wants 802.1X authentication in which both the RADIUS server and every client device prove their identity with certificates. Which EAP method fits this requirement?

    1. APEAP with MS-CHAPv2 inside a server-authenticated TLS tunnel for each user
    2. BEAP-TLS, which uses certificates on both the server and the client
    3. CEAP-MD5 with a shared password for each user account
    4. DLEAP with a username and password and no certificates
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: B

    EAP-TLS uses certificates on both the server and the client, which satisfies mutual certificate-based authentication. PEAP typically needs only a server certificate and uses password credentials inside the tunnel, while EAP-MD5 and LEAP rely on passwords and are weak options.

  5. Question 30

    An attacker repeatedly sends spoofed deauthentication frames to disconnect clients from a WPA2 network. Which feature is designed to protect those management frames?

    1. AWPA2 with TKIP
    2. BHidden SSID broadcast suppression
    3. CProtected Management Frames (802.11w)
    4. DMAC address filtering on the access point
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: C

    Protected Management Frames, defined by 802.11w, cryptographically protect management frames such as deauthentication so spoofed disconnects are rejected. TKIP protects data frames, hiding the SSID does not protect frames, and MAC filtering is easily spoofed.