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Free 312-40 practice test: 30 questions with answers

30 original questions for Certified Cloud Security Engineer (C|CSE), drawn from every topic area. Answer each one to see whether you got it right and why. No sign-up.

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312-40 exam guide: topics, cost and format

All 30 312-40 questions with answers

The same questions as the test above, grouped by exam topic. Open any question to see the answer and explanation.

Cloud fundamentals (8 questions)

  1. Question 1

    A startup's web application receives heavy traffic during a weekly promotion and very little the rest of the week. The team wants compute capacity to rise and fall automatically with demand, without filing manual provisioning requests. Which NIST essential characteristic of cloud computing best matches this requirement?

    1. AResource pooling
    2. BRapid elasticity
    3. CBroad network access
    4. DMulti-tenant sharing of hardware between customers
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: B

    Rapid elasticity means capacity is provisioned and released automatically to match demand, which is exactly what the scenario asks for. Resource pooling describes sharing provider resources among consumers, broad network access describes availability over standard networks, and multi-tenant hardware sharing is an implementation pattern rather than an essential characteristic.

  2. Question 2

    Which cloud deployment model is dedicated to one organization rather than shared with outside consumers?

    1. APublic cloud open to the general public
    2. BCommunity cloud shared by organizations with common concerns
    3. CHybrid cloud combining two distinct deployment models
    4. DPrivate cloud operated for a single organization
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: D

    A private cloud is provisioned for exclusive use by a single organization, whether that organization or a third party runs it. A public cloud is open to the general public, a community cloud serves a defined group with shared concerns, and a hybrid cloud combines two or more distinct models.

  3. Question 3

    A consortium of regional hospitals wants shared cloud infrastructure for research data. Only member institutions, which face the same regulatory requirements and security concerns, should have access. Which deployment model best fits this need?

    1. ACommunity cloud shared by a group with common concerns
    2. BPublic cloud available to any paying customer on a pay-as-you-go basis
    3. CPrivate cloud dedicated to a single hospital
    4. DHybrid cloud linking on-premises systems to a vendor
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: A

    A community cloud serves a defined group of organizations that share a mission, regulatory obligations or security concerns, which matches the consortium. A public cloud is open to any customer, a private cloud serves only one organization, and a hybrid cloud combines distinct models instead of defining a shared group.

  4. Question 4

    Which statement best describes platform as a service (PaaS)?

    1. AThe provider manages the runtime and development tooling while the customer deploys its own applications
    2. BThe provider delivers finished end-user applications over the internet
    3. CThe provider rents raw physical servers with no virtualization layer, and the customer installs every service stack itself
    4. DThe provider runs a dedicated facility exclusively for one customer's workloads
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: A

    PaaS gives customers a managed runtime and development platform, and the customer is responsible for the applications and data it deploys on top. Delivering finished applications describes SaaS, renting bare physical servers is not a standard cloud service model, and a dedicated facility describes a deployment choice rather than a service model.

  5. Question 5

    A company wants to retire an internal email system. Staff only need a browser, and the company does not want to patch software or run any servers. Which service model fits this requirement?

    1. ASoftware as a Service
    2. BPlatform as a Service
    3. CInfrastructure as a Service
    4. DDesktop as a Service
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: A

    Software as a Service delivers a complete application that users access through a browser, while the provider handles the software, servers and patching. Infrastructure and platform models leave application or OS management with the customer, and desktop as a service delivers virtual desktops rather than an email application.

  6. Question 6

    Which characteristic means that a provider's compute, storage and network resources are dynamically assigned to multiple consumers according to demand?

    1. ABroad network access
    2. BResource pooling
    3. CMeasured service
    4. DOn-demand self-service
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: B

    Resource pooling means the provider serves multiple consumers from a shared set of resources that are assigned and reassigned dynamically. Broad network access concerns availability over standard networks, measured service concerns metering and billing, and on-demand self-service concerns provisioning without human interaction with the provider.

  7. Question 7

    A team is comparing cloud designs for a payment system that must survive a facility outage. Which TWO statements about cloud location and deployment design are accurate? (Choose two.)

    1. AAvailability zones are physically separate locations within a region
    2. BA region is a single data center building
    3. CMulti-tenancy means each customer gets dedicated physical hardware
    4. DA hybrid cloud combines private and public infrastructure joined by portable technology
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: A, D

    Availability zones are isolated locations inside a region that help protect workloads from a single facility failure, and hybrid cloud joins private and public environments through standardized, portable technology. A region is made up of several zones rather than one building, and multi-tenancy means shared infrastructure, the opposite of dedicated hardware.

  8. Question 8

    A team wants to package a service with its libraries so that it starts quickly and runs on the same host kernel as other services, without a full guest operating system for each one. Which technology fits this requirement best?

    1. AVirtual machines, each running a complete guest operating system
    2. BContainers that package the application and share the host kernel
    3. CDedicated bare-metal servers rented by the hour for a single tenant
    4. DObject storage buckets with versioning and lifecycle rules enabled
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: B

    Containers package an application with its dependencies and share the host operating system kernel, which makes them lighter than virtual machines. Full guest operating systems per instance describe virtual machines, dedicated servers provide isolation without sharing, and object storage holds data rather than running services.

Shared responsibility (8 questions)

  1. Question 9

    A company uses a managed database service. The provider patches the database engine and maintains the underlying hardware. The company still decides who may query the tables and whether data is encrypted at rest. Which party is responsible for those decisions?

    1. AThe cloud provider, because it operates the database engine
    2. BThe internet service provider carrying the database traffic
    3. CBoth parties equally, with no defined boundary between them
    4. DThe customer, because it controls data and access settings
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: D

    Under the shared responsibility model, the customer remains responsible for its data, access decisions and encryption configuration even when the provider manages the engine and hardware. The provider's responsibility covers the platform, the shared responsibility model does define a boundary, and network carriers are not part of the customer's contract.

  2. Question 10

    Under the shared responsibility model for infrastructure as a service (IaaS), which item remains the customer's responsibility?

    1. APhysical security of the data center building
    2. BReplacing failed disks in the provider's host servers
    3. CConfiguring and patching the guest operating system
    4. DMaintaining the hypervisor software on the host
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: C

    In IaaS the customer manages the guest operating system, its patches and its configuration, while the provider secures the facility, host hardware and hypervisor. Building security, disk replacement and hypervisor maintenance all belong to the provider in this model.

  3. Question 11

    An organization subscribes to a SaaS customer relationship management application. The provider keeps the application and its infrastructure available. Which task is most likely still required from the customer?

    1. APatching the application's internal code, its libraries and its build pipeline
    2. BManaging user accounts, roles and multi-factor authentication settings
    3. CReplacing failed storage drives in the provider's racks
    4. DMaintaining the hypervisor that runs the application
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: B

    With SaaS the provider manages the application code and infrastructure, but the customer still controls who has accounts, what roles they hold and how they authenticate. Patching code, drive replacement and hypervisor maintenance are all provider duties in a SaaS model.

  4. Question 12

    Which statement about identity and access management (IAM) in cloud shared responsibility is most accurate?

    1. AThe provider manages every user identity on the customer's behalf in all service models, including custom roles
    2. BCustomers remain responsible for defining users, roles and permissions for their own cloud resources
    3. CIAM is entirely the provider's responsibility because it runs on the provider's platform
    4. DIAM only matters for on-premises systems and has no cloud equivalent
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: B

    Customers decide which identities exist and what each one may do with their own resources, even though the provider supplies the IAM service. Treating IAM as wholly the provider's job or as irrelevant in the cloud misunderstands where the boundary sits.

  5. Question 13

    A cloud security engineer finds a storage bucket that anonymous users can read because someone set the access policy to allow public reads. The provider's platform is working normally. Who is most accountable for fixing this exposure?

    1. AThe cloud provider, since the storage service is its product
    2. BThe customer, since access policy settings are customer-side configuration
    3. CThe external auditing firm that reviewed the account during its most recent annual audit cycle
    4. DThe end users who accessed the bucket before the issue was found
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: B

    Access policies are configuration choices made by the customer, so the customer is accountable for correcting a public exposure caused by those settings. The provider secures the service itself, while auditors and end users do not control the account's configuration.

  6. Question 14

    In a platform as a service (PaaS) deployment, which responsibility stays with the customer even though the provider manages the runtime?

    1. APhysical cooling and power for the facility and its backup generators
    2. BHardware firmware updates on the servers
    3. CCabling and switch hardware inside the data hall
    4. DApplication code and the data the application processes
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: D

    Under PaaS the customer still owns its application code, the data it processes and the access rules around that data, while the provider manages the runtime and underlying platform. Cooling, firmware and cabling are facility or hardware duties that stay with the provider in every service model.

  7. Question 15

    A customer moves workloads from an on-premises data center to infrastructure as a service (IaaS). Which TWO tasks remain with the customer after the migration? (Choose two.)

    1. AControlling badge access to the provider's server racks
    2. BPatching the guest operating system on each virtual machine
    3. CPatching the hypervisor that hosts the virtual machines
    4. DDefining encryption and key management settings for stored data
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: B, D

    In IaaS the customer manages the guest operating system and the encryption and key configuration for its data. Physical rack access and hypervisor patching remain with the provider, so those options are wrong even though they sound like security tasks.

  8. Question 16

    A team deploys code to a function-as-a-service platform. The provider patches the runtime and the underlying servers. Which responsibilities remain with the team?

    1. AThe function code, its configuration and the permissions the function is granted
    2. BPhysical security and power for the provider's data center, including its cooling and generator systems
    3. CPatching the hypervisor on the provider's host machines
    4. DReplacing failed memory modules in the provider's host hardware
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: A

    In a FaaS model the customer still owns the function code, its configuration and the identity permissions attached to it. The facility, hypervisor and host hardware remain with the provider even though the customer deploys code on that platform.

Standards (7 questions)

  1. Question 17

    Which NIST special publication provides the widely cited definition of cloud computing, including its five essential characteristics and three service models?

    1. ANIST SP 800-145
    2. BNIST SP 800-53
    3. CNIST SP 800-37
    4. DNIST SP 800-171
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: A

    NIST SP 800-145 defines cloud computing, its essential characteristics, deployment models and service models. SP 800-53 is a catalog of security and privacy controls, SP 800-37 describes the risk management framework, and SP 800-171 covers protection of controlled unclassified information.

  2. Question 18

    A cloud provider wants to show customers that its information security controls are tailored to cloud services and extend the general controls in ISO/IEC 27002. Which standard provides this cloud-specific code of practice?

    1. AISO/IEC 27001
    2. BISO/IEC 27018
    3. CISO/IEC 27017
    4. DISO/IEC 27035
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: C

    ISO/IEC 27017 is the code of practice for information security controls for cloud services and extends ISO/IEC 27002 with cloud-specific guidance. ISO/IEC 27001 specifies management system requirements, 27018 focuses on protecting personal data in public clouds, and 27035 covers incident management.

  3. Question 19

    Which standard focuses on protecting personally identifiable information (PII) in public cloud services that act as PII processors?

    1. AISO/IEC 27017 for cloud security controls
    2. BISO/IEC 27001 for information security management systems
    3. CISO/IEC 27018 for PII protection in public clouds
    4. DISO/IEC 27035 for security incident management
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: C

    ISO/IEC 27018 is the cloud standard that addresses protection of PII in public clouds acting as processors. The other three standards cover general cloud controls, the management system itself and incident handling, so none is focused on PII in public cloud services.

  4. Question 20

    A security team wants freely available, consensus-based hardened configuration baselines for operating systems and cloud accounts. Which resource is designed for this purpose?

    1. ACloud Controls Matrix
    2. BCIS Benchmarks
    3. CSOC 2 Type II report
    4. DNIST SP 800-145 summary
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: B

    CIS Benchmarks are consensus-based configuration guidelines that give step-by-step hardening settings for operating systems and cloud platforms. The Cloud Controls Matrix maps control objectives rather than settings, a SOC 2 report is an attestation of controls, and SP 800-145 defines cloud concepts.

  5. Question 21

    What is the primary purpose of the Cloud Controls Matrix published by the Cloud Security Alliance (CSA)?

    1. ATo provide hardened operating system configuration scripts
    2. BTo certify a provider's physical data centers against recognized facility standards
    3. CTo map cloud security controls to multiple standards and regulations
    4. DTo define the list of cloud service and deployment models
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: C

    The Cloud Controls Matrix is a control framework that maps cloud-specific security controls to many standards and regulations, which helps assess a provider's posture. Scripts, physical certification and model definitions are provided by other resources, not by the matrix.

  6. Question 22

    A SaaS vendor wants prospective customers to see independent evidence that its controls for security, availability and confidentiality operated effectively over a sustained period. Which report best meets this need?

    1. AA summary of NIST SP 800-145
    2. BA SOC 2 Type I report
    3. CAn ISO/IEC 27001 certificate
    4. DA SOC 2 Type II report
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: D

    A SOC 2 Type II report covers the operating effectiveness of controls over a period, which shows they worked over time. A Type I report only describes design at a single point in time, while an ISO certificate and an SP 800-145 summary do not provide period-based operating evidence.

  7. Question 23

    Which TWO statements about ISO/IEC 27001 are accurate? (Choose two.)

    1. AIt specifies requirements for an information security management system
    2. BAccredited certification bodies can certify an organization against it
    3. CIt is a configuration guide for hardening Linux servers
    4. DIt sets the breach notification deadlines used under GDPR
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: A, B

    ISO/IEC 27001 specifies requirements for an information security management system and can be certified by accredited bodies. It is not a server hardening guide, and breach notification deadlines come from privacy law such as GDPR rather than from this standard.

  1. Question 24

    A company based in the European Union stores customer profiles with a cloud provider. The company decides the purposes and means of processing, while the provider processes the data only on documented instructions. Under GDPR, which role does the company hold?

    1. AData controller
    2. BData processor
    3. CData subject
    4. DSupervisory authority
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: A

    Under GDPR the controller determines the purposes and means of processing, which describes this company. The provider acts as the processor, the data subjects are the individuals whose data is held, and a supervisory authority is the regulator.

  2. Question 25

    A cloud provider acting as a processor discovers a security incident that affects personal data held for a customer. Under GDPR, what must the processor do first?

    1. ANotify the supervisory authority directly and then the customer
    2. BWait until the controller finishes its internal investigation
    3. CNotify every affected individual directly before informing the controller or any authority
    4. DNotify the controller without undue delay after becoming aware of the breach
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: D

    GDPR requires a processor to notify the controller without undue delay once it becomes aware of a personal data breach, and the controller then handles regulator and individual notifications. Direct regulator notice by the processor, individual notice first, or waiting for the controller are not the required first step.

  3. Question 26

    An investigator needs cloud logs for a civil lawsuit. The company has legal authority over the records, but they are stored on provider infrastructure. Which action best preserves the evidence for later use in court?

    1. APlace a legal hold and document the chain of custody for the collected evidence
    2. BExport the logs in bulk without recording who accessed, exported or changed them at any point
    3. CDelete logs older than the normal retention period to reduce volume
    4. DAsk an engineer to adjust timestamps so the logs are easier to read
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: A

    A legal hold stops relevant data from being deleted once litigation is reasonably anticipated, and a documented chain of custody shows who handled the evidence. Undocumented exports, deleting records or editing timestamps would all weaken admissibility.

  4. Question 27

    A bank must move workloads to a cloud region, but its regulator requires that customer records stay physically stored within the country. Which concept is the regulator enforcing?

    1. ALeast privilege
    2. BData minimization
    3. CPseudonymization
    4. DData residency
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: D

    Data residency requires that data be stored in a specified geographic location, which is what the regulator demands. Data minimization limits how much data is collected, pseudonymization replaces identifiers, and least privilege restricts access rights, and none of these addresses where data is physically stored.

  5. Question 28

    Which U.S. law regulates the protection of health information held by covered entities and their business associates?

    1. AGramm-Leach-Bliley Act governing financial institution privacy
    2. BSarbanes-Oxley Act governing corporate financial reporting controls
    3. CHealth Insurance Portability and Accountability Act
    4. DPCI DSS, an industry standard for payment card data
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: C

    HIPAA sets privacy and security rules for protected health information held by covered entities and business associates. Sarbanes-Oxley covers financial reporting controls, Gramm-Leach-Bliley covers financial institutions, and PCI DSS is an industry standard for payment card data rather than a law.

  6. Question 29

    Which TWO contract or assurance measures help a customer verify a cloud provider's controls? (Choose two.)

    1. ARight-to-audit clauses written into the service contract
    2. BIndependent third-party attestation reports such as SOC 2
    3. CAccepting the provider's marketing claims as sufficient evidence
    4. DTurning off all logging to reduce the provider's liability
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: A, B

    Right-to-audit clauses and independent attestation reports give the customer ways to check that controls exist and operate. Relying on marketing claims or disabling logs does nothing to verify controls and would weaken the customer's own oversight.

  7. Question 30

    A company stores payment card data in the cloud and must comply with PCI DSS. Which statement is correct?

    1. AUsing a PCI DSS compliant provider removes all of the company's PCI obligations for its entire environment
    2. BPCI DSS applies only to on-premises systems and never to cloud workloads
    3. CThe company remains responsible for PCI DSS compliance of its cardholder data environment
    4. DPCI DSS applies only to payment processors and not to merchants
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: C

    Using a compliant provider does not transfer the merchant's obligations, because the company remains accountable for its cardholder data environment. The provider's compliance covers only the parts of the environment it manages, and PCI DSS applies to merchants as well as processors and to cloud workloads.