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Free Certified SOC Analyst (CSA) practice test: 30 questions with answers

30 original questions for Certified SOC Analyst (CSA), drawn from every topic area. Answer each one to see whether you got it right and why. No sign-up.

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Certified SOC Analyst (CSA) exam guide: topics, cost and format

All 30 Certified SOC Analyst (CSA) questions with answers

The same questions as the test above, grouped by exam topic. Open any question to see the answer and explanation.

Incident Detection and Triage (4 questions)

  1. Question 1

    What is a false positive in alert triage?

    1. AA real attack that the detection rules failed to raise an alert for when it occurred on the network
    2. BAn alert that was raised for activity that turns out to be benign after the analyst has reviewed it
    3. CA duplicate ticket that was created in the ticketing system for an alert that was already being handled
    4. DAn alert that carries a low severity label in the tool, even though it may refer to important activity
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: B

    A false positive is an alert on benign activity, which adds noise to the queue. A missed real attack is a false negative, while duplicate tickets and low severity labels are workflow and classification issues.

  2. Question 2

    Which SIEM component stores and indexes events so that they can be searched?

    1. AThe forwarder, which only collects events on the endpoint and sends them on without indexing them
    2. BThe dashboard widget that displays a count of alerts in the summary panel for the analysts on shift
    3. CThe integration with the ticketing system, which creates a ticket whenever an alert meets a threshold
    4. DThe indexer or data store, which holds the events in a searchable form for queries and correlation
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: D

    The indexer or data store holds events in a form that supports fast search and correlation, which is the core of SIEM retention. Forwarders collect, dashboards display, and ticket integrations route work, so none of them stores events for searching.

  3. Question 3

    What is the first step in triaging a new alert?

    1. AClosing all low-severity alerts in the queue without looking at them, so the queue is cleared quickly
    2. BValidating the alert against the source event and its context before deciding whether to escalate it
    3. CEscalating the alert straight to the chief information security officer so that leadership is informed
    4. DReimaging the affected endpoint immediately, so that any malware is removed before it can spread further
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: B

    Checking the alert against the source event and its context decides whether it is real and how serious it is, which determines any escalation. Closing without review, escalating blindly, or reimaging before analysis risks missing evidence or wasting response effort.

  4. Question 4

    Which statement about the lifecycle of a detection use case is correct?

    1. AA use case is developed, tested, tuned, deployed, and then reviewed on a schedule to keep it effective
    2. BA use case should be retired as soon as it generates its first alert, because the rule must be noisy
    3. CA use case is finished once it is deployed to the SIEM and it is never reviewed or changed afterwards
    4. DA use case is needed only for network devices, because endpoints are covered by the vendor's own tools
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: A

    Use cases need continuous care: they are built, tested, tuned for noise, deployed, and reviewed as the environment changes. Treating deployment as the end, retiring at the first alert, or limiting use cases to network devices each leaves gaps or wastes effort.

Security Operations and Management (4 questions)

  1. Question 5

    What is the main purpose of a SOC maturity model?

    1. ATo describe how capable a SOC is across people, process, and technology so that improvements can be planned
    2. BTo set the salary bands for analysts across every team in the company so that pay stays consistent
    3. CTo count the number of alerts closed each day as the only measure of how well the SOC is performing
    4. DTo replace the incident response plan with a checklist that analysts follow during every security event
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: A

    A maturity model gives a structured view of the SOC's people, processes, and technology, which is the basis for a roadmap of improvements. Pay bands, a single activity count, and replacing the incident response plan each misunderstand what maturity assessment is for.

  2. Question 6

    Which metric best shows how quickly a SOC contains a confirmed incident?

    1. AThe total storage consumed by the logs that are retained in the central logging platform each month
    2. BThe number of alerts that the SIEM generates each hour across all of the monitored data sources combined
    3. CMean time to respond (MTTR), measured from incident confirmation through to containment of the threat
    4. DThe number of analysts in the team who completed the optional vendor training course during the year
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: C

    MTTR measured from confirmation to containment reflects the speed of the response once a real incident is known. Alert volume, storage, and training completions describe workload or inputs rather than response speed.

  3. Question 7

    Which two are common operational challenges for a SOC? (Choose two.)

    1. AAlert fatigue caused by high volumes of low-value and duplicate alerts reaching analysts each shift
    2. BToo few alerts to keep analysts engaged with their work during the quieter weeks of the year
    3. CA lack of skilled analysts and high turnover, which keeps the team inexperienced with real incidents
    4. DA documented escalation matrix that tells analysts exactly who to contact for each type of event
    5. EClear handover notes at the end of each shift so that the next analysts know what is still open
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: A, C

    Alert fatigue and staffing gaps are persistent problems that reduce the SOC's ability to find and respond to real threats. A documented escalation matrix and clear handover notes are good practice that helps the SOC, so they are not challenges.

  4. Question 8

    Which SOC tier usually carries out first-line alert review and triage of incoming events?

    1. ATier 1 analysts, who review incoming alerts, perform initial triage, and escalate confirmed incidents
    2. BTier 4 forensic specialists, who analyse disks and memory images after an incident has been fully contained
    3. CManagement of the security function, who approve the budget and set the strategy for the coming year
    4. DTier 3 threat hunters, who proactively search the environment for adversaries that are not yet detected
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: A

    Tier 1 analysts handle the incoming queue, triage alerts, and escalate what they cannot close or confirm. Hunters, forensic specialists, and management each work on later or different parts of the function.

Understanding Cyber Threats, IoCs, and Attack Methodology (4 questions)

  1. Question 9

    Which attack type injects malicious SQL through an application input field?

    1. ASQL injection, which places attacker-supplied SQL into a query the application builds from input
    2. BDenial of service, which overwhelms a service with traffic so that legitimate users cannot reach it
    3. CCross-site scripting, which injects script that runs in the browser of other users of the site
    4. DSession hijacking, which steals a valid session token so that the attacker can act as the logged-in user
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: A

    SQL injection places attacker-controlled SQL into a query built from unvalidated input, which is the behaviour described. Cross-site scripting, denial of service, and session hijacking are distinct attack types that do not inject SQL into a database query.

  2. Question 10

    What does an indicator of compromise (IoC) represent?

    1. AA scheduled patch deployment that the operations team has approved for the next maintenance window
    2. BA complete description of the attacker's motives, goals, and the reasons behind the choice of the target
    3. CObservable evidence, such as a file hash, domain, or IP address, that suggests malicious activity has occurred
    4. DA user's approved login pattern, which records the hours and locations the person normally signs in from
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: C

    An IoC is observable forensic evidence, such as a hash, domain, or address, that points to a compromise and can be searched for. Attacker motives, patch schedules, and normal login patterns are not indicators of compromise.

  3. Question 11

    Which model describes an intrusion through four connected vertices: adversary, capability, infrastructure, and victim?

    1. AThe NIST Cybersecurity Framework, which organizes security outcomes into functions such as govern and detect
    2. BThe ISO/IEC 27001 standard, which specifies requirements for an information security management system
    3. CThe Diamond Model of intrusion analysis, which links adversary, capability, infrastructure, and victim
    4. DThe OWASP Top Ten, which lists the most critical risks to web applications based on collected data
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: C

    The Diamond Model describes an intrusion as a relationship between those four vertices, which helps analysts pivot from one piece of evidence to others. The other frameworks are governance, management, or web-risk references rather than intrusion analysis models.

  4. Question 12

    Which two are recognized stages in the Cyber Kill Chain model of an intrusion? (Choose two.)

    1. AReconnaissance, in which the attacker gathers information about the target before attacking it
    2. BPatch approval, in which the change board signs off the software updates for the next maintenance window
    3. CWeaponization, in which the attacker combines an exploit with a payload to create a deliverable
    4. DAsset disposal, in which the organization removes retired hardware from its inventory and records it
    5. EOffice relocation, in which the staff move to a new building and the network is re-cabled for the team
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: A, C

    Reconnaissance and weaponization are early stages of the kill chain, followed by delivery, exploitation, and the rest. Patch approval, asset disposal, and office relocation are business processes that are not stages of an attacker's intrusion.

Log Management (4 questions)

  1. Question 13

    Which Windows Security log event shows that an account successfully logged on?

    1. AEntries in the Setup log that record the installation of an update package on the machine
    2. BEvent entries in the System log about driver updates that were installed on the host
    3. CEntries in the Application log for the printer spooler service that handled the print jobs
    4. DEvent ID 4624, which records that an account was successfully logged on to the system
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: D

    Event ID 4624 in the Security log records a successful logon, which is central to tracing account use. Driver, spooler, and setup logs record other activity on the host.

  2. Question 14

    Why is accurate time synchronization across devices important for log correlation?

    1. AIt lets events from different sources be placed in the correct order during an investigation of an incident
    2. BIt changes the content of the logs so that personal information is removed before it is stored centrally
    3. CIt removes the need for normalization, because events from every source already share the same format
    4. DIt reduces the size of the log files on each device, which makes the central storage cheaper to run
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: A

    Correlating events across devices depends on consistent timestamps, otherwise the sequence of an attack cannot be reconstructed. Time sync does not change file size, remove personal data, or replace normalization.

  3. Question 15

    What does log normalization do?

    1. AMoves the logs to a new server each day so that the storage of the central platform remains free
    2. BDeletes duplicate lines from a single log file so that each event appears only once in the file
    3. CEncrypts the logs at rest so that they can be read only by the security operations team members
    4. DConverts logs from different sources into a common format with consistent field names for analysis
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: D

    Normalization maps fields from different sources onto a shared schema, which makes correlation and searching across sources practical. Deduplication, encryption, and moving logs are separate operations that do not normalize the content.

  4. Question 16

    Which two firewall log fields help identify the initiator and the target of a connection? (Choose two.)

    1. AThe rule's comment field, which describes the purpose that the rule was originally written to serve
    2. BThe source IP address and the source port of the session that the firewall recorded for the traffic
    3. CThe firmware version of the firewall appliance, which is recorded for each entry in the log file
    4. DThe destination IP address and the destination port of the session that the firewall recorded
    5. EThe serial number of the device, which identifies the hardware that processed the traffic overall
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: B, D

    Source address and port show where the connection came from, while destination address and port show what it was aimed at. Rule comments, firmware versions, and serial numbers describe the policy or hardware rather than the endpoints of the session.

Proactive Threat Detection (4 questions)

  1. Question 17

    Which type of threat intelligence describes the tactics, techniques, and procedures used by threat actors?

    1. AStrategic reports that describe the budget priorities of the organization for the coming financial year
    2. BVulnerability scanner results that list the weaknesses found on the assets during the latest scan cycle
    3. CTactical intelligence on TTPs, which describes how threat actors operate so that defenders can detect them
    4. DAsset inventory data that records the hardware and the software installed on each endpoint in the estate
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: C

    Tactical intelligence describes how adversaries operate, which is what defenders need to build detections. Strategic reports, scan results, and asset inventories provide other kinds of information that do not describe adversary behaviour.

  2. Question 18

    Which two are part of a threat hunting process? (Choose two.)

    1. AForming a hypothesis based on threat intelligence or on behaviour that has been observed in the environment
    2. BWaiting for alerts to arrive from the SIEM before any investigation is started by the hunting team at all
    3. CSearching the collected data for indicators or behaviours that the existing detections have not caught
    4. DInstalling patches on a fixed schedule so that known vulnerabilities are removed from the environment
    5. ERunning a single vulnerability scan each year to demonstrate that the environment is free of weaknesses
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: A, C

    Threat hunting starts from a hypothesis and searches for activity that existing detections missed, which is what makes it proactive. Waiting for alerts, scheduled patching, and an annual scan are reactive or hygiene activities rather than hunting.

  3. Question 19

    Which format is used to write rules that identify malware families using textual or binary patterns?

    1. ACSV files that list the malware hashes and the names of the families in a flat, unstructured layout
    2. BYARA rules, which describe patterns in files and memory so that malware families can be matched
    3. CExcel macros that count the occurrences of file names in a folder during the weekly review of files
    4. DPowerPoint templates that present the malware trends to the executive team as a set of summary slides
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: B

    YARA rules describe textual and binary patterns that are used to classify and find malware in files and memory. CSV lists, spreadsheet macros, and slide templates are reporting formats that cannot match patterns in malware.

  4. Question 20

    Which kind of threat intelligence feed is most useful for immediately blocking known malicious infrastructure?

    1. AA geopolitical analysis that explains the motivations of nation-state actors in the region of interest
    2. BA strategic report that describes long-term industry trends and the expected direction of threats
    3. CA vendor marketing newsletter that describes the features of the latest security products on the market
    4. DAn indicator of compromise feed that lists malicious IP addresses, domains, and file hashes for matching
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: D

    Indicator feeds provide concrete values, such as addresses and hashes, that can be matched and blocked immediately. Strategic reports, marketing newsletters, and geopolitical analysis inform decisions but are not directly actionable for blocking.

Incident Response (4 questions)

  1. Question 21

    In a common incident response sequence, which phase follows containment?

    1. APreparation, which covers the policies, tools, and training that must be in place before any incident occurs
    2. BDetection and analysis, which confirms that an event is an incident and establishes its scope and impact
    3. CPost-incident review, which reviews what happened and what should change once the response is complete
    4. DEradication, which removes the attacker's access, malware, and persistence from the affected environment
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: D

    Once the spread is contained, eradication removes the attacker's footholds and malware before recovery begins. Preparation and detection come before containment, and the post-incident review comes after recovery.

  2. Question 22

    Which two steps belong to the recovery phase of an incident? (Choose two.)

    1. ARestoring systems from clean backups that are known to be free of the attacker's changes and malware
    2. BDeleting all of the logs that were collected during the incident so that the environment looks clean
    3. CVerifying that the restored systems operate normally and are monitored before they return to users
    4. DDisabling the monitoring tools so that the restored systems are not flagged by their own alert rules
    5. ESharing the attacker's IP addresses with the press so that the public can help block them from access
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: A, C

    Recovery restores systems from clean sources and verifies them before users return, with monitoring in place. Deleting logs, disabling monitoring, and publicizing attacker addresses destroy evidence, remove protection, or misdirect the response.

  3. Question 23

    What does SOAR primarily add to a security operations centre?

    1. AAutomation and orchestration of response playbooks across the tools that the SOC already uses each day
    2. BA way to store logs for ten years at a lower cost than the central SIEM platform currently charges
    3. CA replacement for the ticketing system's reporting features so that the analysts see the status faster
    4. DA new type of firewall that inspects traffic at the application layer and blocks malicious requests
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: A

    SOAR platforms automate and coordinate repeatable response steps across tools, under analyst control. A firewall, a log store, and a reporting replacement are different products that do not describe what orchestration provides.

  4. Question 24

    Which element makes an incident response playbook effective in practice?

    1. ALong narrative text that describes the history of past incidents without giving any clear decisions to take
    2. BBeing kept only by the SOC manager in a personal folder, so that the document stays under tight control
    3. CClear triggers, ordered steps, named roles, and decision points that responders can follow under pressure
    4. DMentioning every tool available in the company so that responders know all of the options that they have
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: C

    An effective playbook tells responders when to start, what to do, who does it, and what to decide, which works under time pressure. Narrative history, a private copy, and an exhaustive tool list do not give responders usable steps.

SOC for Cloud Environments (3 questions)

  1. Question 25

    Which Microsoft service is a cloud-native SIEM and SOAR platform?

    1. AMicrosoft Excel, which is a spreadsheet application used for analysis and for creating financial reports
    2. BMicrosoft Sentinel, which collects security data in the cloud and supports detection and automated response
    3. CMicrosoft Intune, which manages devices and applications and enforces compliance policies for users
    4. DMicrosoft Teams, which provides chat, meetings, and collaboration tools for staff across the organization
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: B

    Microsoft Sentinel is Microsoft's cloud-native SIEM and SOAR service, which collects data, detects threats, and automates response. The other products are productivity, device management, and collaboration tools.

  2. Question 26

    Which AWS service provides a central view of security findings across multiple AWS accounts?

    1. AAWS Lambda, which runs code in response to events without requiring the customer to manage any servers
    2. BAmazon S3 lifecycle rules, which move stored objects to cheaper storage classes as they age over time
    3. CAmazon EC2 placement groups, which control how instances are placed on the underlying physical hardware
    4. DAWS Security Hub, which aggregates security findings and compliance checks across accounts and services
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: D

    Security Hub aggregates findings and compliance results from many accounts and security services into one view. S3 lifecycle rules, placement groups, and Lambda serve storage, placement, and compute purposes.

  3. Question 27

    Which Google Cloud service centralizes security findings and misconfigurations across projects?

    1. ASecurity Command Center, which gathers security findings and misconfigurations across Google Cloud projects
    2. BCloud Storage lifecycle management, which moves objects between storage classes as they age in the bucket
    3. CCompute Engine preemptible virtual machines, which offer lower prices for workloads that can be interrupted
    4. DCloud Functions, which run event-driven code without requiring the customer to manage the server runtime
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: A

    Security Command Center is the central place for findings and misconfigurations across Google Cloud. Storage lifecycle, preemptible instances, and Cloud Functions are compute and storage services rather than security posture tools.

Forensic Investigation and Malware Analysis (3 questions)

  1. Question 28

    What should happen first when preserving evidence from a suspect host?

    1. AFormatting the disk so that the malware is removed completely before the team starts the investigation
    2. BDocumenting the current state and capturing volatile data, such as memory, before the host is shut down
    3. CRebooting the host so that any malicious processes stop running before the team examines the system
    4. DDeleting the temporary files on the host so that the attacker cannot use them against the team later
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: B

    Volatile data is lost at shutdown, so documenting state and capturing memory comes before any change to the host. Formatting, rebooting, and deleting temporary files each destroy evidence that the investigation depends on.

  2. Question 29

    Which technique lets an analyst observe a suspicious executable's behaviour without exposing the production network?

    1. ARunning it on the domain controller, which has the most complete view of the network activity in the domain
    2. BCopying it to a shared folder so that colleagues can open it and see whether it behaves like a normal program
    3. CDynamic analysis in an isolated sandbox that records the file's behaviour, such as its file and network activity
    4. DEmailing it to the user who received it, so that the user can confirm whether the program is one they recognize
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: C

    Dynamic analysis in an isolated sandbox records what the program does while keeping production systems separate from the risk. Running it on a domain controller, sharing it, or emailing it expose the production network to the sample.

  3. Question 30

    Which artifact on Windows shows that persistence was set up through scheduled execution?

    1. ABrowser history entries that record the websites the user visited during the working day in the browser
    2. BScheduled task definitions that describe the program, trigger, and account used to run the task
    3. CEntries in the printer spool folder that record the documents that were printed by users in the office
    4. DDesktop wallpaper settings that are stored in the user profile and changed by the user at some point
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: B

    Scheduled task definitions show what program will run, when, and under which account, which is direct evidence of scheduled persistence. Browser history, print spools, and wallpaper settings do not show scheduled execution.