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Free Certified Incident Handler (ECIH) practice test: 30 questions with answers

30 original questions for Certified Incident Handler (ECIH), drawn from every topic area. Answer each one to see whether you got it right and why. No sign-up.

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Certified Incident Handler (ECIH) exam guide: topics, cost and format

All 30 Certified Incident Handler (ECIH) questions with answers

The same questions as the test above, grouped by exam topic. Open any question to see the answer and explanation.

Incident Handling and Response Process (5 questions)

  1. Question 1

    An analyst receives an alert that a workstation is beaconing to an unknown external address. What is the correct first step in the incident handling process?

    1. AReimage the workstation immediately so that any malware is removed without delay
    2. BValidate the alert and confirm that it is a true positive before escalating the incident
    3. CNotify the entire company by email so that every user can watch for the threat
    4. DDelete the alert from the queue because outbound connections are common in normal traffic
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: B

    Validating the alert separates true incidents from false positives and sets the response in motion. Reimaging before analysis destroys evidence, company-wide notices are premature, and deleting the alert ignores a real indicator.

  2. Question 2

    Which phase of incident handling is about limiting the spread of an incident while preserving the evidence needed for investigation?

    1. ARecovery, which returns systems to normal operation after the threat is removed
    2. BEradication, which removes the malicious artefacts from every affected system
    3. CContainment, which limits the spread of the incident while preserving evidence
    4. DLessons learned, which documents what happened after the incident is closed
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: C

    Containment limits spread and keeps evidence intact for investigation. Eradication removes the threat, recovery restores service, and lessons learned happens after the incident has been closed.

  3. Question 3

    Which activity is part of the preparation phase of incident handling?

    1. ABuilding an incident response policy, a team and communication plans before incidents occur
    2. BCollecting the disk image of a compromised server after the attack has been discovered
    3. CRestoring the production database from backup after the outage has been resolved
    4. DWriting the final report for the executive team after the incident has been closed
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: A

    Preparation builds the policy, team, tools and communication plans before an incident happens. Imaging, restoring and reporting all occur after an incident is under way or closed.

  4. Question 4

    Which action best preserves the integrity of digital evidence collected from a live system?

    1. ACreating a bit-for-bit forensic image and recording its hash value and chain of custody
    2. BCopying the important files by dragging them to a USB drive without recording anything
    3. COpening each file on the compromised system to confirm its contents before copying
    4. DShutting down the system abruptly so that the malware cannot continue running
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: A

    A bit-for-bit image with a hash and a documented chain of custody preserves integrity and admissibility. Drag-and-drop copying, opening files on the compromised system and abrupt shutdown each change or lose evidence.

  5. Question 5

    What is the purpose of the post-incident activity phase in incident handling?

    1. ATo reconnect the compromised systems to the internet as quickly as possible for users
    2. BTo review what happened, record lessons learned and improve controls and procedures
    3. CTo delete the incident records so that the company's reputation is protected in public
    4. DTo assign blame to the individual employee who clicked the link in the phishing email
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: B

    Post-incident activity reviews the incident, records lessons and improves controls and procedures. Rapid reconnection, deleting records and blaming individuals each undermine learning and governance.

Malware Incidents (5 questions)

  1. Question 6

    A ransomware incident has encrypted files on a file server. Which first containment action is most appropriate?

    1. ATurn off the server's logging so that the encryption process runs without interruption
    2. BPay the ransom immediately to recover the files as quickly as the attackers request
    3. CIsolate the affected systems from the network to stop encryption from spreading further
    4. DInstall the latest software updates on every system without first isolating the infected ones
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: C

    Isolating affected systems stops encryption from spreading and protects other data. Paying the ransom is unreliable and discouraged, disabling logging destroys evidence, and patching infected systems first can spread the malware.

  2. Question 7

    Which indicator most strongly suggests that a host is infected with malware that has persistence?

    1. AA monitor that displays a lower brightness setting than the default when the screen is idle
    2. BA recently installed application that the user requested from the official software catalogue
    3. CA routine software update that the system installed automatically overnight from its vendor
    4. DA new scheduled task or registry run key that launches an unknown executable at startup
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: D

    A new scheduled task or run key that starts an unknown executable is a common persistence mechanism. Approved installs, vendor updates and display settings are normal behaviours.

  3. Question 8

    Which technique helps an investigator determine whether a suspicious file is malicious without running it on a production system?

    1. ADouble-clicking the file on the production server so that its behaviour is visible immediately
    2. BAnalysing the file in an isolated sandbox environment with monitoring of its behaviour
    3. CEmailing the file to all staff so that someone can confirm whether it looks familiar to them
    4. DUploading the file to a public website and then running it on the same production server
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: B

    An isolated sandbox lets the analyst observe behaviour safely without risking production systems. Running the file on production, emailing it to staff and public uploads each expose the environment or leak the sample.

  4. Question 9

    Which THREE are signs of possible malware activity on an endpoint? (Choose three.)

    1. AUnexpected outbound connections to unfamiliar addresses at odd hours
    2. BProcesses that run with unusual names or from unexpected folders on the disk
    3. CSudden disabling of security tools such as antivirus or endpoint monitoring
    4. DStandard operating system updates installed on the agreed patch schedule
    5. EA user changing the desktop wallpaper to a photo of their own choice on a Friday
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: A, B, C

    Unexpected connections, unusual processes and disabled security tools are common malware indicators. Scheduled patches and a user's own wallpaper choice are normal activity.

  5. Question 10

    A malware sample is found to communicate with a domain that is known to be used by a specific malware family. Which type of indicator is this domain?

    1. AA marketing keyword that should be added to the company's public website content
    2. BAn indicator of a normal business partner that should be whitelisted without review
    3. CA personal data item that must be deleted from the company records immediately
    4. DAn indicator of compromise that can be used to search for other infected hosts
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: D

    A domain tied to a malware family is an indicator of compromise, which can be searched for across logs and endpoints. The other interpretations are wrong, and whitelisting without review would be dangerous.

Network Incidents (4 questions)

  1. Question 11

    Which evidence most clearly points to a denial-of-service attack rather than a legitimate traffic spike?

    1. ALogins from employees returning from lunch breaks at the usual time of day across the office
    2. BA steady increase in visitors over several weeks after a successful product launch campaign
    3. CTraffic that peaks at the same time as the company's monthly newsletter is sent to subscribers
    4. DTraffic from many unrelated sources targeting one service at a volume that exhausts its resources
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: D

    A flood from many unrelated sources aimed at one service, which exhausts its resources, is characteristic of a distributed denial-of-service attack. Launch growth, newsletter peaks and routine logins have expected causes.

  2. Question 12

    An investigator sees outbound traffic to an unfamiliar host on an unusual port at 3 a.m. What is the most useful next step?

    1. ACorrelate the traffic with endpoint and proxy logs to identify the process and user responsible
    2. BBlock all outbound traffic from the entire company permanently without any further checks
    3. CAssume the connection is harmless because it happened outside of normal working hours
    4. DRestart the firewall so that the connection stops, without recording the connection details
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: A

    Correlating the connection with endpoint and proxy logs identifies which process and user created it, which guides containment. Blanket blocking, assumptions and restarts without records each lose important information.

  3. Question 13

    Which log source is most useful for tracing an attacker's movement between internal hosts?

    1. AThe printer queue log that records the documents that staff print during the working day
    2. BAuthentication and network flow logs that show which accounts connected to which systems
    3. CThe building access log that records when staff badge in and out of the office each day
    4. DThe coffee machine usage report that counts the drinks made in the staff kitchen
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: B

    Authentication and network flow logs show which accounts connected to which hosts and when, which reveals lateral movement. Printer, badge and coffee logs have no direct link to host-to-host activity.

  4. Question 14

    Which TWO are effective containment measures for a compromised host on a network? (Choose two.)

    1. ABlocking the host's network access at the switch or firewall while preserving its state
    2. BKeeping the host connected so that the attacker's activity can be watched without limits
    3. CChanging the host's name so that the attacker loses track of the system's location
    4. DShutting down the entire network to stop the host from communicating with anything else
    5. ERevoking credentials used on the host and blocking command-and-control destinations
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: A, E

    Blocking network access while preserving state and revoking credentials and command-and-control destinations are effective containment steps. Watching without limits leaves the threat active, renaming changes nothing, and shutting the network down is disproportionate.

Email Security Incidents (4 questions)

  1. Question 15

    Which sign most strongly indicates that a user's mailbox has been compromised and used to send phishing emails?

    1. AUnexpected inbox rules that forward messages to an external address without the user's knowledge
    2. BA new email signature that the user chose to add to their messages for professional branding
    3. CA meeting invitation sent by a colleague who is known to the user and expected that day
    4. DA newsletter subscription confirmation that arrived after the user signed up for it themselves
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: A

    Unexpected forwarding rules to an external address are a common sign of mailbox compromise used for data theft and further phishing. The other items are normal, expected email activity.

  2. Question 16

    What is the first step in responding to a reported phishing email that several employees have clicked?

    1. AWait for the employees to report whether they entered their passwords on the fake site
    2. BForward the phishing email to all staff with a note asking them to avoid clicking the link
    3. CBlock the sender domain, remove the message from mailboxes and reset the affected credentials
    4. DIgnore the reports because the email was already filtered by the mail gateway at the perimeter
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: C

    Blocking the domain, removing the message and resetting credentials contain the phishing campaign and limit account misuse. Forwarding it to everyone spreads the link further, waiting for confessions delays action, and ignoring reports misses compromises that filters let through.

  3. Question 17

    Which TWO are reasonable steps when a user reports a suspicious attachment? (Choose two.)

    1. ADo not open the attachment and collect its headers and details for analysis
    2. BOpen the attachment on the user's computer to check whether the content is harmful
    3. CAsk the user to forward the attachment to a personal email address for safe keeping
    4. DVerify the sender through a separate channel and check the mail gateway logs for delivery
    5. EDelete all copies of the message across the organisation without recording its details
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: A, D

    Not opening the attachment and collecting headers protects the user and supports analysis, and verifying the sender and checking gateway logs establishes scope. Opening it, forwarding it personally and deleting without records each cause harm or lose evidence.

  4. Question 18

    Which email authentication mechanism helps prevent spoofing of a company's own domain by checking the sending servers?

    1. AThe subject line of the message, which can be checked by reading its wording carefully
    2. BPOP3 and IMAP, which are the protocols used to retrieve messages from mail servers
    3. CSPF, DKIM and DMARC, which validate senders and tell receivers how to handle failures
    4. DThe recipient list of the message, which shows the people who should receive the email
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: C

    SPF, DKIM and DMARC validate senders and define how failures are handled, which counters domain spoofing. Retrieval protocols, subject lines and recipient lists do not authenticate the sender.

Web Application Incidents (4 questions)

  1. Question 19

    A web server log shows many requests containing the text union select in the URL parameters. Which attack does this most likely indicate?

    1. AAn update check from a browser that is requesting its latest version information
    2. BA normal user browsing the product catalogue with the search function as intended
    3. CSQL injection attempts against a database-backed page
    4. DA health check from the load balancer that confirms the web server is responding
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: C

    The keywords union select are a classic signature of SQL injection probing. The other requests are normal browsing, update checks or health checks.

  2. Question 20

    Which control reduces the impact of a successful cross-site scripting attack on users of a web application?

    1. AStoring session tokens in a URL parameter so that they are visible in every page request
    2. BDisabling all HTTPS certificates so that the browser does not block any injected script
    3. CAllowing users to paste any HTML they like into comments so that content is more expressive
    4. DOutput encoding and a content security policy that restricts where scripts can load from
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: D

    Output encoding stops injected content being run as script, and a content security policy limits script sources. Disabling HTTPS, allowing raw HTML and exposing tokens in URLs each increase the risk.

  3. Question 21

    Which control most directly prevents SQL injection in a web application?

    1. ADisplaying detailed database error messages on every page to help developers debug
    2. BHiding the database schema from users so that attackers cannot see the table names
    3. CParameterised queries that keep user input separate from the query structure
    4. DAllowing unrestricted input length so that the application accepts any user data without limit
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: C

    Parameterised queries separate user input from SQL structure, which directly prevents injection. Hiding names, showing detailed errors and allowing unlimited input each help attackers or fail to stop the injection.

  4. Question 22

    A web application shows a session token in the browser's address bar. Why is this a risk?

    1. AThe token can be captured from browser history, logs or shared links and reused by an attacker
    2. BThe token makes the page load more slowly, which causes users to abandon the application
    3. CThe token is visible only to the server, so it has no security impact on any other party
    4. DThe token is required by the browser's spellchecker, which is a security feature in itself
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: A

    Tokens in URLs leak through browser history, logs, referrer headers and shared links, which allows session hijacking. Speed, invisibility and spellchecking are not the risk.

Cloud Incidents (4 questions)

  1. Question 23

    A cloud storage bucket has been found publicly readable and contains customer data. What should the incident handler do first?

    1. APost the bucket address on a public forum so that the owner is alerted to the problem
    2. BDownload the entire bucket to a laptop so that the data can be checked offline
    3. CDelete the bucket immediately so that no more data can be read from it by anyone
    4. DRemove public access from the bucket and preserve its access logs for investigation
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: D

    Removing public access stops further exposure while preserving access logs to determine who accessed the data. Downloading to a laptop, deleting the bucket and publicising it each cause additional harm or lose evidence.

  2. Question 24

    In a cloud environment, which log type records administrative actions such as creating or deleting a resource?

    1. AControl plane audit logs that record administrative API calls and who made them
    2. BApplication debug logs that show the internal steps of a single function's execution
    3. CPrinter logs that record the documents sent to office printers during the day
    4. DBrowser cache logs that record the images stored on a user's device locally
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: A

    Control plane audit logs record administrative API calls, including resource creation and deletion, with the identity that made them. Debug, printer and cache logs do not record those administrative actions.

  3. Question 25

    An attacker has obtained cloud access keys from a leaked code repository. Which action is the most urgent?

    1. ARevoke and rotate the exposed keys, then review their usage in the audit logs
    2. BPost a message on the public repository asking the attacker to return the keys politely
    3. CLeave the keys in place and wait for the attacker to show their intentions over time
    4. DEmail the keys to all staff so that they can check whether any of them recognise them
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: A

    Revoking and rotating exposed keys stops misuse, and audit log review shows what was done with them. Asking the attacker, waiting and emailing keys each prolong or widen the exposure.

  4. Question 26

    Which cloud configuration is the most common cause of exposure of storage data?

    1. ARestricting access to storage through identity roles that are reviewed every quarter
    2. BUsing encryption at rest with keys managed by the provider for the stored objects
    3. CPublic access settings that allow anonymous reads on storage buckets or containers
    4. DEnabling versioning and logging on storage accounts that hold important business data
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: C

    Public access settings are a leading cause of storage exposure. Encryption, role-based restriction and logging reduce exposure rather than causing it.

Insider Threat Incidents (4 questions)

  1. Question 27

    Which situation is the strongest indicator of a possible insider data theft?

    1. AAn employee attending a training course on the company's approved data handling procedures
    2. BAn employee working late to finish a large report that the manager requested last week
    3. CAn employee downloading large volumes of confidential files just before resigning from the company
    4. DAn employee asking the IT helpdesk to reset a forgotten password during normal working hours
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: C

    Large downloads of confidential data shortly before resignation are a recognised insider theft pattern. Late work, training and routine password resets are expected behaviours.

  2. Question 28

    Which control reduces the risk of a privileged insider misusing administrator access?

    1. ARemoving all logging from administrative sessions so that they run faster for the admins
    2. BGiving every administrator the same shared password so that actions are hard to attribute
    3. CAllowing administrators to grant themselves additional access whenever a task requires it
    4. DPrivileged access management with session recording and approval for sensitive actions
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: D

    Privileged access management with recording and approval limits misuse and makes actions attributable. Shared passwords, self-granted access and removed logging each make misuse easier and harder to detect.

  3. Question 29

    Which measure helps detect an employee who is stealing data by copying it to personal cloud storage?

    1. AData loss prevention rules that flag large uploads to unsanctioned cloud services
    2. BOpening the company intranet to all search engines so that staff activity is publicly visible
    3. CDeleting the access logs for file shares every day to free up disk space on the servers
    4. DAllowing staff to use any personal storage service without any monitoring or restriction at all
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: A

    Data loss prevention rules flag large uploads to unsanctioned services, which surfaces exfiltration. Public indexing, deleting logs and unrestricted personal storage each remove detection or increase exposure.

  4. Question 30

    A departing employee is suspected of taking confidential designs. Which action is most appropriate once suspicion is raised?

    1. AConfront the employee in front of colleagues to see whether they admit to taking the designs
    2. BInvolve HR and legal, preserve the relevant logs, and limit the employee's access in line with policy
    3. CLet the employee keep full access until the last day so that the investigation is not tipped off
    4. DTell all colleagues the suspected name so that they can help watch the employee's activity
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: B

    Involving HR and legal, preserving logs and limiting access follows policy and protects the investigation and the employee's rights. Confrontation, unrestricted access and public naming each risk the evidence and fairness.