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Free Professional Cloud Security Engineer practice test: 30 questions with answers

30 original questions for Professional Cloud Security Engineer, drawn from every topic area. Answer each one to see whether you got it right and why. No sign-up.

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Professional Cloud Security Engineer exam guide: topics, cost and format

All 30 Professional Cloud Security Engineer questions with answers

The same questions as the test above, grouped by exam topic. Open any question to see the answer and explanation.

Configure access (6 questions)

  1. Question 1

    Developers must be able to deploy to production, but they must not hold standing project owner rights. Which approach best meets this requirement?

    1. AAdd the developers to the Organisation Administrator group so that they can fix production issues directly
    2. BGive the developers a shared service account key with Owner rights, and rotate that key every quarter
    3. CUse Privileged Access Manager for approved, time-bound elevated roles that expire automatically
    4. DGrant Project Owner at the organisation level so that no approval workflow slows down deployments
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: C

    Privileged Access Manager grants elevated roles just in time, with approval and expiry, so no one holds standing owner rights. A shared key with Owner rights is a standing, widely shared credential. Organisation Administrator and organisation-level Owner grants are broader still, and both remove the approval step the requirement depends on.

  2. Question 2

    Which IAM design best limits the damage if a service account key is leaked?

    1. AGrant the service account the Editor role on the organisation so that one key can manage every project
    2. BCreate one shared service account for all applications so that any key rotation happens in one place
    3. CGrant only the roles needed on specific projects, and use attached identities, not key files
    4. DDisable IAM audit logging for the service account to reduce noise in the security dashboards
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: C

    Scoping roles to specific projects and using attached identities removes both the excess permissions and the downloadable key that could leak. An organisation-wide Editor grant turns one leaked key into a company-wide compromise. A shared account widens the blast radius, and disabling audit logs removes the means of detecting misuse.

  3. Question 3

    Employees may open internal web applications only from managed, compliant laptops, without a VPN. Which Google Cloud product enforces this?

    1. ACloud NAT with static external IP addresses assigned to each application instance
    2. BIdentity-Aware Proxy with access levels based on user identity and device posture
    3. CCloud Armor with geographic restrictions applied to the application's load balancer
    4. DVPC Network Peering with the corporate network so that traffic is routed privately
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: B

    Identity-Aware Proxy checks identity and, through access levels, device posture before forwarding a request, which matches the requirement without a VPN. Cloud Armor geographic rules control where requests come from rather than what device is used. Cloud NAT and VPC peering control network paths and do not check the device at all.

  4. Question 4

    A security team wants to stop every project in the organisation, including projects created in the future, from creating service account keys. Which control enforces this?

    1. AA firewall rule that blocks outbound calls from workloads to the IAM API endpoints
    2. BCloud Audit Logs alerts on key creation, reviewed by the security team once a week
    3. CA Cloud KMS key rotation policy applied to each service account in the organisation, reviewed quarterly
    4. DAn organisation policy that disables service account key creation for all projects
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: D

    An organisation policy constraint set at the top of the hierarchy applies to existing and future projects, so key creation is blocked everywhere. Firewall rules do not govern IAM API calls made through the console or gcloud. Alerts detect key creation after the fact, and KMS rotation covers encryption keys, not service account keys.

  5. Question 5

    Which statement about IAM Conditions is correct?

    1. AConditions can only be attached to basic roles and are not available for predefined or custom roles
    2. BConditions are attached to the service account key file rather than to the role binding that grants access
    3. CConditions replace the need for any role, so a condition on its own is enough to grant permissions
    4. DConditions can restrict a role binding by attributes such as request time, resource name or resource tags
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: D

    IAM Conditions add attribute-based restrictions, such as request time, resource name or tags, to a role binding. They are attached to bindings, not to key files, and they only narrow access granted by a role. Conditions work with predefined and custom roles, so the claim that they are limited to basic roles is wrong.

  6. Question 6

    Which TWO are recommended practices for securing service accounts? (Choose two.)

    1. AUse short-lived credentials through attached service accounts or workload identity federation
    2. BGrant the Owner role to each service account so that scheduled deployments never fail on permissions
    3. CAvoid user-managed keys where possible, and rotate or audit any that must remain in use
    4. DStore service account key files in the team's source repository so that every developer can run jobs
    5. EUse one service account across all environments so that configuration stays simple to maintain
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: A, C

    Short-lived credentials from attached identities or workload identity federation avoid long-lived key files, and minimising and rotating user-managed keys limits exposure. Owner roles and a single shared account over-privilege workloads. Storing key files in a repository exposes them to everyone with read access.

Secure communications and establish boundary protection (6 questions)

  1. Question 7

    A company must stop data exfiltration from its projects to services outside the organisation, while keeping normal access to Google APIs for its own workloads. Which control fits best?

    1. ACloud NAT with allowlisted destination IP addresses configured for each Google API endpoint
    2. BA VPC Service Controls perimeter around the projects, enforcing restricted Google APIs
    3. CCloud Armor rules with web application firewall signatures that match the hostnames of Google APIs
    4. DAn external HTTPS load balancer with an SSL policy that restricts the cipher suites accepted
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: B

    A VPC Service Controls perimeter blocks API calls that would copy data out of the perimeter, while still allowing authorised access from inside it. Allowlisted NAT addresses cannot follow Google API endpoints reliably and do not stop copies through API calls. Cloud Armor filters inbound web traffic, and SSL policies control only the TLS handshake.

  2. Question 8

    A public web application must be protected at the edge against volumetric DDoS attacks and layer-7 abuse, including bot traffic. Which service should be used?

    1. ACloud Armor security policies with adaptive protection, attached to the global load balancer
    2. BCloud CDN with signed URLs, so that only requests carrying a valid signature are served
    3. CCloud DNS with a very low TTL, so that failover to a clean endpoint happens quickly
    4. DCloud VPN with IPsec tunnels, so that only traffic from known networks can reach the application
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: A

    Cloud Armor security policies on the global external load balancer absorb volumetric attacks at the edge, and adaptive protection and rate rules address layer-7 abuse such as bots. Low-TTL DNS helps failover but does not filter attacks. Signed URLs and VPN tunnels restrict access to content and networks, which does not solve public DDoS and bot abuse.

  3. Question 9

    Which statement about Private Service Connect is correct?

    1. AIt lets a consumer reach a published service through a private IP address in its own VPC
    2. BIt publishes a service's public IP address to the internet so that consumers can find it
    3. CIt is available only for Cloud Storage buckets and cannot be used with other managed services
    4. DIt requires a VPN tunnel to be established before any published service can be reached by a consumer
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: A

    Private Service Connect exposes a service to consumers through private IP addresses in their own VPC, without VPN tunnels or public exposure. It is not limited to Cloud Storage and does not publish public addresses. Its design avoids needing a VPN for connectivity between the consumer and the service.

  4. Question 10

    A bank must ensure that all traffic between two microservices in a Google Kubernetes Engine cluster is encrypted and mutually authenticated, without changing application code. Which feature fits best?

    1. AA Cloud NAT gateway configured for the east-west traffic between the services inside the cluster
    2. BVPC flow logs enabled on the cluster subnet so that every connection between services is recorded
    3. CAn IP allowlist that permits traffic between the services only from one fixed address per service
    4. DA service mesh with mutual TLS, such as Cloud Service Mesh, enforced between the services
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: D

    A service mesh with mutual TLS encrypts service-to-service traffic and authenticates each workload at the proxy layer, so application code does not change. Flow logs record connections but do not encrypt or authenticate them. IP allowlists do not provide encryption or identity, and Cloud NAT is designed for outbound traffic to external destinations.

  5. Question 11

    Which TLS practice matters most when a company exposes an HTTPS load balancer to clients?

    1. AAccept TLS 1.0 for older browsers, and enable HSTS only on the origin servers behind the balancer
    2. BDisable certificate validation between the load balancer and its backends to speed up each handshake
    3. CSet a minimum TLS version of 1.2 with a modern SSL policy, and manage certificates centrally
    4. DUse self-signed certificates on every public endpoint so that each team controls its own certificates
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: C

    A minimum TLS version of 1.2 with a modern SSL policy blocks outdated protocols, and central certificate management keeps renewals and trust under control. Accepting TLS 1.0 weakens every connection that uses it. Disabling validation or using self-signed certificates on public endpoints removes the trust checks that protect clients.

  6. Question 12

    Which TWO are valid controls for restricting who can reach a VM's administrative port? (Choose two.)

    1. ALeaving SSH open to 0.0.0.0/0 on the VM and relying on a strong password for each administrator
    2. BIdentity-Aware Proxy TCP forwarding, which lets authorised users reach SSH and RDP through IAM checks
    3. CAssigning a public IP address to every VM so that administrators can connect directly from anywhere
    4. DFirewall rules that allow SSH only from the Identity-Aware Proxy address range, combined with IAM
    5. EDisabling the VM's serial console logs so that administrative sessions are harder to observe
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: B, D

    Identity-Aware Proxy TCP forwarding checks IAM before a session reaches the port, and firewall rules that admit only the IAP range stop direct connections from the internet. Open SSH with passwords and public IPs on every VM widen the exposure. Disabling serial console logs reduces visibility without restricting access.

Ensure data protection (6 questions)

  1. Question 13

    A company wants Cloud Storage data encrypted with keys it can revoke centrally, with key usage logged and key administration separated from data administration. Which option meets this?

    1. ACustomer-managed keys in Cloud KMS, with separate key administrators and audit logs
    2. BClient-side encryption with keys stored in each engineer's password manager
    3. CGoogle-managed default keys with no additional logging enabled on the key usage
    4. DCustomer-supplied keys delivered by email to each project owner when a bucket is created
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: A

    Customer-managed keys in Cloud KMS let the company disable or revoke keys centrally, with separate administrator roles and audit logs of key use. Google-managed keys are not controlled by the customer, and client-side keys held in password managers are hard to govern. Emailing keys to project owners exposes them and separates no duties.

  2. Question 14

    Analysts need to query a BigQuery table, but sensitive columns must appear masked to most users while non-sensitive columns remain readable. Which feature helps most?

    1. AExporting the table to a public Cloud Storage bucket with a randomly generated object name
    2. BColumn-level policy tags, combined with data masking rules per user group
    3. CGranting project-level Viewer so that analysts can see every column without any restriction
    4. DCopying the table into a dataset that uses a shared administrator password for all users
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: B

    Policy tags restrict individual columns, and masking rules let different user groups see obscured values of sensitive columns while the rest of the table stays readable. A public bucket exposes the data to anyone. Project Viewer grants unrestricted reading, and a shared password is an insecure credential.

  3. Question 15

    A team needs to find and classify sensitive data such as payment card numbers held in Cloud Storage buckets. Which capability should it use?

    1. ASensitive Data Protection inspection jobs with infoTypes, scanning the buckets
    2. BCloud Monitoring custom metrics that count the objects stored in each bucket over time
    3. CCloud Logging exclusion filters applied to storage access logs to reduce the log volume
    4. DCloud Scheduler jobs that copy each bucket to a second location every night as a backup
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: A

    Sensitive Data Protection inspection jobs use infoTypes such as credit card numbers to find and classify sensitive values in Cloud Storage. Monitoring counts objects rather than inspecting their content. Log exclusion reduces logging volume, and nightly copies protect availability rather than revealing sensitive content.

  4. Question 16

    Regulation requires data at rest to stay in EU regions, and resources must not be created in other regions. Which control enforces this across the organisation?

    1. ALabels on each project that name the EU region, reviewed by the security team once a month
    2. BA documented policy in the internal wiki that asks engineers to choose an EU region when they deploy
    3. CAn organisation policy restricting resource locations to EU regions, set at the top of the hierarchy
    4. DRegional replication of every storage bucket to an EU region, so that copies exist there at all times
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: C

    A resource location organisation policy blocks resource creation outside approved regions for every project beneath the node where it is applied. Labels and wiki guidance rely on people and do not enforce anything. Replication copies data to the EU but does not stop resources being created elsewhere.

  5. Question 17

    Which statement about cryptographic keys in Cloud KMS is correct?

    1. AKey rotation creates a new key version, and older versions remain available to decrypt existing data
    2. BKeys can be deleted immediately, and a scheduled deletion period cannot be configured by the team
    3. CKey material can be exported in plain text from Cloud KMS at any time, for backup outside the service
    4. DKeys must be shared between projects by copying the key material into each project's own key ring
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: A

    Rotation creates a new key version for new encryption while older versions remain available to decrypt data already encrypted with them. Cloud KMS does not allow plain-text export of key material, and destruction can be scheduled rather than immediate. Sharing keys is done by granting access to a key, not by copying key material.

  6. Question 18

    Which TWO practices protect backups and snapshots from accidental or malicious deletion? (Choose two.)

    1. AStoring backups in a separate project with restricted delete permissions and tightly controlled administrators
    2. BEnabling retention policies or locks so that backups cannot be deleted before the retention period ends
    3. CStoring backups in the same project with Project Owner access for the whole engineering team
    4. DDeleting old snapshots manually whenever storage costs rise, so that the backup set stays small
    5. EDisabling snapshot creation for databases that change frequently, so that restores are never needed
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: A, B

    A separate project with restricted delete rights limits who can remove backups, and retention locks stop deletion before the retention period ends, even by administrators. Shared Project Owner access and manual deletion when costs rise both increase the risk of loss. Disabling snapshots removes the recovery point the business relies on.

Manage operations (6 questions)

  1. Question 19

    A security team must be alerted as soon as an IAM policy is changed on a production project. Which approach is most reliable?

    1. AReviewing the IAM policy page in the console every Friday afternoon for unexpected entries
    2. BA log-based alert on the SetIamPolicy audit entry, routed to on-call staff
    3. CAsking project owners to email the security team after each change they make to the policy
    4. DEnabling VPC flow logs on the production subnet so that changes to access can be seen in traffic
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: B

    A log-based alert on the SetIamPolicy audit entry fires as soon as the change is recorded and routes it to people who can respond. Weekly console reviews detect changes days late, and emailing owners depends on them remembering. Flow logs record network traffic, not IAM policy changes.

  2. Question 20

    A company wants detection of threats such as cryptomining and anomalous IAM behaviour, across its whole organisation. Which Security Command Center capability provides this?

    1. ACloud Monitoring with a custom uptime check that fails when a suspicious process starts
    2. BA free asset inventory tier that lists resources but produces no security findings at all
    3. CSecurity Command Center Premium, with threat detection and posture management
    4. DCloud Billing alerts that trigger when the monthly spend on any project rises above a threshold
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: C

    The Premium tier of Security Command Center includes threat detection that identifies cryptomining and anomalous IAM activity, along with posture management. An asset inventory lists resources without detecting threats. Uptime checks and billing alerts do not identify attacker behaviour.

  3. Question 21

    Regulators require security logs to be retained for seven years in a form that cannot be altered. Which configuration fits?

    1. ALogs kept in Cloud Logging's default retention period, with no export configured to other storage
    2. BLogs deleted after 30 days and summarised in a spreadsheet that the security team maintains
    3. CLogs written to a local file on each VM, rotated and kept on the instance's own disk
    4. DA log sink to a Cloud Storage bucket with a locked retention policy set for seven years
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: D

    Exporting logs with a sink to a bucket with a locked retention policy keeps them for seven years in a form that cannot be shortened or altered. Default Cloud Logging retention is shorter than seven years, and local files can be edited or lost with the instance. Deleting logs and keeping summaries does not satisfy a requirement for the original records.

  4. Question 22

    A VM is suspected of compromise. The incident response team must preserve evidence before the VM is rebuilt. Which step should come first?

    1. ADelete the VM and restore from the most recent nightly snapshot without inspecting the original system
    2. BIsolate the VM with network tags or firewall rules, then capture disk and memory evidence
    3. CRestart the VM so that any malware is cleared from memory before the team begins any analysis
    4. DRotate every user's password across the organisation before any evidence has been collected from the system
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: B

    Isolating the VM contains the threat, and capturing disk and memory evidence preserves what happened before anything changes. Deleting or restarting the VM destroys evidence. Rotating every password is a broad response that can be needed, but it does not preserve the VM's evidence and is not the first step.

  5. Question 23

    Which TWO practices reduce the time needed to respond to a high-severity security alert? (Choose two.)

    1. ASending all alerts to a shared mailbox that the team checks once a week
    2. BDisabling alerts for low-severity findings so that the queue of open items stays short
    3. CUsing an automated playbook, such as a Cloud Function, to quarantine a compromised instance on a high-severity finding
    4. DPre-approved runbooks and on-call routing defined for each class of security finding
    5. ETurning off logging on each project to reduce the volume of events the team must review
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: C, D

    Automated playbooks can contain a compromised instance within minutes, and pre-approved runbooks with on-call routing let people act without debating the response. Weekly mailbox review and turning off alerts both delay or hide response. Disabling logging removes the evidence needed to detect and investigate incidents.

  6. Question 24

    Which tool shows which principals can access a sensitive resource, through which role bindings, across a project and its folders?

    1. ABilling export to BigQuery, grouped by principal, to show the spend attributable to each user
    2. BCloud Monitoring dashboards that count the IAM-related API calls made against each project per hour
    3. CStorage Transfer Service job logs for the bucket, showing the copies that each job completed
    4. DPolicy Analyzer, which reports who can access a resource and the bindings that grant that access
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: D

    Policy Analyzer answers who can access a resource and which bindings grant the access, across the resource hierarchy. Billing exports show cost, monitoring counts API calls without naming who holds the access, and transfer logs describe copy jobs. None of them answers the access question directly.

Support compliance requirements (6 questions)

  1. Question 25

    An auditor asks for evidence that access to customer data was limited to approved personnel over the last year. Which source is the strongest evidence?

    1. AData access audit logs exported to a locked bucket, plus IAM policy history from Asset Inventory
    2. BScreenshots of the IAM console taken on the day the auditor asks, showing the current users
    3. CA spreadsheet of approved personnel that the security team maintains, with no system records attached
    4. DBilling reports that show how many users were active in each project during the year
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: A

    Data access audit logs show who accessed data and when, and exporting them to a locked bucket keeps them tamper-resistant, while Asset Inventory history shows the policy state over time. Screenshots show only one moment, and spreadsheets are not system evidence. Billing reports count activity but do not show who accessed what.

  2. Question 26

    Which Google Cloud resource gives a customer's compliance team the third-party audit reports and certifications for Google Cloud services?

    1. AThe pricing calculator estimate, which documents the expected monthly cost of the services
    2. BThe customer's own network diagram, which describes how traffic moves between services
    3. CThe Google Cloud status dashboard, which lists current and past service incidents by region
    4. DCompliance Reports Manager, which provides audit reports and certifications
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: D

    Compliance Reports Manager provides Google Cloud's third-party audit reports and certifications, which compliance teams use in their own assessments. A customer's network diagram describes their design, not Google's controls. The status dashboard and pricing calculator serve operations and budgeting.

  3. Question 27

    A regulated project must prove that its Cloud Storage buckets cannot be made public. Which evidence is most convincing?

    1. AA verbal confirmation from the storage administrator, who checked the buckets last quarter
    2. BThe bucket names, which are randomly generated and therefore hard for outsiders to guess
    3. CAn organisation policy that enforces public access prevention, with its evaluation history
    4. DScreenshots from the previous year's audit, which showed the buckets were private at that time
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: C

    An enforced organisation policy prevents public access in the first place, and its evaluation history shows the control applied continuously. A verbal confirmation and old screenshots are point-in-time and not verifiable. Random bucket names are obscurity, which does not prevent public access.

  4. Question 28

    A company must check its security configuration continuously against a benchmark such as the CIS Google Cloud Foundations benchmark. Which product is designed for this?

    1. ACloud Build with unit tests that run on every commit to the infrastructure repository, reviewed by the team
    2. BSecurity Health Analytics findings in Security Command Center, mapped to CIS benchmarks
    3. CCloud Scheduler with weekly cron jobs that trigger a manual configuration review
    4. DCloud Pub/Sub with dead-letter topics that hold messages the consumers cannot process
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: B

    Security Health Analytics continuously checks configuration against security best practices and maps findings to benchmarks such as CIS in Security Command Center. Cloud Build tests code changes rather than live configuration, and scheduled reviews are periodic rather than continuous. Pub/Sub dead-letter topics handle messaging failures.

  5. Question 29

    Which TWO controls help demonstrate compliance with data residency requirements? (Choose two.)

    1. AA resource location organisation policy that restricts resources to approved regions
    2. BRelying on the provider's default region choice, with no documented restriction in place
    3. CLabels that record the intended region on each resource in a project
    4. DAn Assured Workloads folder with the compliance regime applied and resource locations restricted
    5. EA printed copy of the network diagram kept in the security team's filing cabinet
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: A, E

    A resource location policy technically restricts where resources can be created, and an Assured Workloads folder applies a compliance regime with location restrictions and monitoring. Labels record intent but do not enforce it, and relying on defaults is not a documented control. A printed diagram does not demonstrate where resources run.

  6. Question 30

    A company must show that its data access logs cannot be altered by project administrators. Which configuration best supports this?

    1. AStore the logs in a Cloud Logging bucket in the same project, which Project Owners can edit
    2. BExport data access logs to a bucket with a locked retention policy, in a separate project
    3. CKeep local copies of the logs on a VM that the team maintains and backs up on its own schedule
    4. DEmail extracts of the logs to the compliance team each month for them to keep in a shared folder
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: B

    Exporting logs to a locked bucket in a separate project keeps the evidence outside the reach of the administrators whose actions it records. Editable logs in the same project and local VM copies can be changed by the people being audited. Monthly email extracts are partial and easy to alter.