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Free Certified Information Privacy Professional / Europe (CIPP/E) practice test: 30 questions with answers
30 original questions for Certified Information Privacy Professional / Europe (CIPP/E), drawn from every topic area. Answer each one to see whether you got it right and why. No sign-up.
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Certified Information Privacy Professional / Europe (CIPP/E) exam guide: topics, cost and format
All 30 Certified Information Privacy Professional / Europe (CIPP/E) questions with answers
The same questions as the test above, grouped by exam topic. Open any question to see the answer and explanation.
Domain I - Introduction to European Data Protection (6 questions)
Question 1
Which instrument is generally recognised as the first legally binding international treaty on the automated processing of personal data, opened for signature by the Council of Europe in 1981?
- AOECD Guidelines on the Protection of Privacy
- BConvention 108 of the Council of Europe
- CUniversal Declaration of Human Rights
- DDirective 95/46/EC of the European Parliament and of the Council
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Correct answer: BConvention 108 (1981) is the first legally binding international instrument on data protection. The OECD Guidelines are non-binding recommendations, the Universal Declaration is not a treaty, and Directive 95/46/EC is an EU instrument from 1995 rather than a Council of Europe treaty.
Question 2
A citizen believes that a national intelligence agency's bulk collection of communications metadata breaches the right to respect for private and family life. The citizen has used all domestic remedies. Which body can hear the complaint, and under which provision?
- AThe Court of Justice of the EU, under Article 267 TFEU
- BThe European Data Protection Supervisor, under Regulation 2018/1725
- CThe European Data Protection Board, under Article 65 of the GDPR
- DThe European Court of Human Rights, under Article 8 ECHR
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Correct answer: DArticle 8 of the ECHR protects private and family life, and individual complaints after domestic remedies are heard by the European Court of Human Rights, a Council of Europe body separate from the EU. The CJEU answers preliminary questions on EU law, the EDPS supervises EU institutions, and the EDPB resolves GDPR consistency disputes, so none of them takes this complaint.
Question 3
A German court is deciding a case on how the GDPR should be read and asks whether it should refer the question to the Court of Justice of the European Union. What is the main effect of such a preliminary reference?
- AThe Court of Justice decides the national case and orders a remedy for the claimant
- BThe Court of Justice reviews the national court's judgment on appeal and can annul it
- CThe Court of Justice gives a non-binding opinion on how a regulator should enforce the law
- DThe Court of Justice gives a binding interpretation of EU law
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Correct answer: DUnder Article 267 TFEU a national court may ask the CJEU to interpret EU law, and the interpretation binds the referring court, which then applies it to its own case. The CJEU does not decide the national dispute, does not act as an appeal court for national judgments, and does not give non-binding advice to regulators.
Question 4
A news website stores a tracking cookie on visitors' devices to measure reading habits for advertising. Under the ePrivacy Directive 2002/58/EC as amended, which condition applies to storing this information on the device?
- AThe site must obtain prior consent after giving clear information, unless the cookie is strictly necessary
- BThe site may store it because the visitor was offered an opt-out link in the privacy policy
- CThe site must store it only if a supervisory authority has approved the advertising network
- DThe site may store it without consent, because the cookie holds only pseudonymised identifiers and the visitor never objected to tracking
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Correct answer: AArticle 5(3) of the ePrivacy Directive requires prior, informed consent before storing or reading information on a user's terminal equipment, with an exception for storage strictly necessary to provide a service the user has requested. An opt-out link, supervisory approval, or pseudonymised identifiers do not replace the consent requirement.
Question 5
In 2015 the Court of Justice of the European Union invalidated the Safe Harbour arrangement that had allowed transfers of personal data from the EU to the United States. What was the central reason for this ruling?
- AThe arrangement was not a legal instrument at all, since it had been adopted only by industry associations
- BThe arrangement allowed companies to avoid notifying data subjects of the transfers in every case
- CThe arrangement did not adequately protect personal data against access by US public authorities
- DThe arrangement had been adopted by the Council without consulting the European Parliament, as the Treaty requires
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Correct answer: CIn Schrems I (C-362/14) the CJEU held that the Commission's Safe Harbour adequacy decision did not ensure an adequate level of protection, because US public authorities could access data beyond what was necessary and individuals had no effective legal remedy. The other options misstate how the arrangement was adopted and what it required.
Question 6
A multinational asks why its data protection obligations became far more uniform across EU member states after 25 May 2018 than under the 1995 framework. Which TWO statements explain this correctly? (Choose two.)
- AThe GDPR is a regulation, which applies directly in member states without national implementing legislation
- BDirective 95/46/EC had to be transposed into national law, which allowed divergent national implementations
- CThe GDPR is an international treaty that member states ratified separately, replacing the earlier directive
- DThe GDPR sets only minimum standards, so each member state may choose its own rules for most processing
- EThe GDPR removed all national flexibility, so no member state may adopt any specific rule for its own context
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Correct answer: A, BA regulation applies directly, so the GDPR needs no national implementing acts, whereas Directive 95/46/EC had to be transposed and so produced divergent national laws. The GDPR is an EU regulation rather than a separately ratified treaty, and it keeps specific opening clauses that allow limited national variation, so the other statements are wrong.
Domain II - European Data Protection Law and Regulation (6 questions)
Question 7
A website operator records visitors' IP addresses. The operator cannot identify visitors directly, but an internet service provider holds the information needed to link each address to a subscriber, and the operator could obtain that information through legal proceedings. How should the IP addresses be treated under the GDPR?
- AThey are not personal data, because the operator cannot identify visitors without help from another party
- BThey are personal data, since the operator has means reasonably likely to identify visitors
- CThey are personal data only where the ISP has actually disclosed a subscriber's name to the operator
- DThey are personal data only if the visitors have registered an account with the operator
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Correct answer: BRecital 26 and the CJEU in Breyer (C-582/14) treat an identifier as personal data where the controller has legal means reasonably likely to be used to identify the person, including through a third party such as an ISP. Requiring registration or actual disclosure, or ignoring identification through a third party, does not reflect that test.
Question 8
A mobile app asks new users to accept its terms. A box for receiving promotional emails from the company is already ticked by default, and users must untick it to opt out. A user does nothing with the box and later complains about the emails. Which statement is accurate?
- AThe emails are lawful, because the user did not object and the box was visible on the screen
- BThe emails are lawful, because the company can rely on legitimate interests for all of its marketing
- CThe emails are unlawful, because a pre-ticked box is not a clear affirmative action by the user
- DThe emails are lawful, since the user accepted the app's terms, which cover all promotional activity and any later uses
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Correct answer: CUnder Article 4(11) GDPR consent must be a clear affirmative act, and a pre-ticked box does not meet that test (see Planet49, C-673/17). Silence, visibility, or acceptance of general terms cannot replace consent, and for direct email marketing the ePrivacy Directive generally requires consent anyway.
Question 9
A charity runs a free newsletter sign-up that asks for name, email address, date of birth, home address and employer. The newsletter only sends a monthly email. Which GDPR principle is most directly breached by collecting the extra fields?
- AAccuracy, because the data subject may later enter incorrect information in the form fields
- BData minimisation, since the fields collected exceed what is adequate, relevant and necessary
- CIntegrity and confidentiality, because the extra fields are stored without encryption on the server
- DStorage limitation, because the charity has not defined how long each field must be kept for
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Correct answer: BArticle 5(1)(c) requires personal data to be adequate, relevant and limited to what is necessary for the purpose, and a monthly email needs only an email address. Accuracy, storage limitation and security are separate principles that may also apply, but the core breach here is collecting data the purpose does not need.
Question 10
A data subject objects to their personal data being used for direct marketing. What must the controller do under the GDPR?
- AContinue marketing unless the data subject proves that the marketing causes them serious harm
- BStop processing the data for direct marketing, without carrying out a balancing test
- CStop processing only after the supervisory authority has reviewed the objection in detail
- DStop marketing only for the channel the data subject names, such as email but not telephone calls
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Correct answer: BArticle 21(2) and (3) give the data subject an absolute right to object to direct marketing, so processing for that purpose must stop and no balancing test applies. Proof of harm, a supervisory authority review, or a channel-by-channel stop is not what the GDPR requires.
Question 11
A compliance officer cites an EDPB guideline on consent in an internal memo. A colleague argues the guideline is legally binding in the same way as the GDPR itself. What is the accurate position?
- AThe guideline is not legally binding, but it sets out the EDPB's interpretation of the GDPR
- BThe guideline binds only the lead supervisory authority in the case where it was adopted
- CThe guideline binds national courts, which must follow it in every consent case they decide, even when their national law differs
- DThe guideline binds all controllers, because the EDPB adopts it under Article 58 of the GDPR
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Correct answer: AEDPB guidelines are issued under Article 70 GDPR to promote consistent application and are authoritative interpretive guidance, but they are not themselves legally binding. Controllers and courts must still apply the GDPR text and the case law of the CJEU, and Article 58 concerns supervisory authority powers rather than EDPB guidance.
Question 12
A customer contests the accuracy of their credit history held by a lender and asks for the disputed data to be restricted while the lender checks it. Which statement about the right to restriction under Article 18 GDPR is correct?
- AThe lender may keep the data stored but must restrict other processing while accuracy is verified
- BThe lender must erase the disputed data at once, because the accuracy dispute gives the right to erasure
- CThe lender must stop all processing, including storage, until the customer proves the data is wrong
- DThe lender may keep processing the data as normal, because the customer has no right to restriction for credit data
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Correct answer: AUnder Article 18(1)(a) processing must be restricted while the accuracy of contested data is checked, and Article 18(2) allows restricted data to be stored while other processing is limited. Erasure is not automatically triggered by the dispute, and the GDPR itself contains no credit-sector exemption from Article 18.
Domain III - European Data Processing (6 questions)
Question 13
An online clothing retailer collects a customer's delivery address so it can send an order the customer placed. Which lawful basis under Article 6(1) GDPR is most appropriate for that address?
- AConsent, because the customer must give consent before any personal data such as an address can be processed
- BLegitimate interests, because the retailer has a commercial interest in every delivery it makes
- CPerformance of a contract with the customer, because the address is needed to deliver the order
- DVital interests, because a failed delivery could cause the customer financial harm
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Correct answer: CArticle 6(1)(b) allows processing necessary for the performance of a contract with the data subject, and delivering a placed order needs the address. Consent is not the right basis where processing is necessary for the contract, legitimate interests is unnecessary for this core need, and vital interests covers only life-threatening emergencies.
Question 14
A data broker obtains a list of consumers' names and postal addresses from a third-party source and plans to contact the people for marketing. Under Article 14 GDPR, what must the broker generally do when it first contacts each individual?
- ANotify only the source of the list, since the individuals are not expected to receive any information from the broker
- BProvide the Article 14 information at the latest when first contacted, and within one month
- CProvide the Article 13 information once at collection, and no further notice is needed for data obtained from others
- DObtain the individuals' prior consent before any information about the processing is provided to them at all
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Correct answer: BArticle 14 applies where data is not obtained from the data subject, and Article 14(3) requires the information within a reasonable period, at most one month, and at the latest at the first communication with the person. Prior consent is not a precondition for this notice, notice to the source alone is insufficient, and Article 13 covers data collected directly from the individual.
Question 15
A European company transfers employee records to a parent company in a country without an adequacy decision and relies on the Commission's standard contractual clauses. After the Court of Justice's Schrems II ruling, what additional step is the company expected to take?
- AAsk the destination country's government to certify the clauses before any employee data is sent
- BReplace the standard clauses with an Article 49 derogation, since the clauses can no longer be used at all
- CAssess the level of protection in the destination country and adopt supplementary measures where needed
- DNotify every employee individually and obtain their explicit consent for each transfer, every time it happens
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Correct answer: CIn Schrems II (C-311/18) the CJEU confirmed that standard clauses remain available, but the exporter must check case by case that the clauses can be complied with in practice and add supplementary measures where the destination's law undermines them. Government certification and Article 49 derogations for occasional transfers are not the required step, and per-employee consent is not the general solution.
Question 16
A cloud service provider acting as processor for a bank wants to engage a subcontractor to store backup copies of the bank's customer data. What does Article 28 GDPR require before this happens?
- AApproval from the supervisory authority, since any subcontracting of personal data requires a regulatory filing
- BWritten authorisation from the bank, with the same data protection obligations passed to the subcontractor
- CA notice to customers only, because customers can object to the subcontractor after it starts processing
- DNothing, because the subcontractor is responsible for compliance and the processor has no liability for it
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Correct answer: BArticle 28(2) requires the processor to obtain prior specific or general written authorisation from the controller before engaging a sub-processor, and Article 28(4) requires the same data protection obligations to be imposed on that sub-processor. Supervisory approval is not required, customers do not authorise the subcontractor, and the processor stays liable to the controller.
Question 17
A travel company and a hotel chain jointly decide the purposes and means of a shared customer loyalty platform. Which TWO statements about their responsibilities under Article 26 GDPR are correct? (Choose two.)
- AThey must set out in a transparent arrangement who complies with which obligations
- BA data subject may exercise GDPR rights against either controller, regardless of the arrangement between them
- CEach party is responsible only for the processing carried out on its own systems, not the shared platform
- DThe arrangement only has to be disclosed to the supervisory authority and never to the data subjects
- EOnly the party with the larger customer base or larger data share may be treated as the controller for the platform
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Correct answer: A, BArticle 26 requires joint controllers to determine their respective responsibilities transparently, with the essence of the arrangement made available to data subjects, and data subjects may exercise their rights against each controller. Limiting responsibility to each party's own systems, keeping the arrangement from data subjects, and assigning controllership by size are all wrong.
Question 18
A bank wants to process transaction-pattern data to detect fraud on customers' cards and relies on legitimate interests. Which steps reflect the balancing test that applies to this basis?
- AObtain explicit consent, publish the processing in a public register, and notify the supervisory authority in advance each time
- BShow that a public authority has ordered the monitoring, and that the bank has no interest of its own in the outcome
- CConfirm that the data is anonymised, then transfer it to a country with an adequacy decision for analysis
- DIdentify a legitimate interest, show the processing is necessary, and weigh that interest against individuals' rights
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Correct answer: DArticle 6(1)(f) requires the controller to identify a legitimate interest, show the processing is necessary for it, and balance that interest against the individuals' rights, freedoms and reasonable expectations. Explicit consent, public-authority orders and anonymisation are not requirements of this basis.
Domain IV - European Data Protection: Scope and Accountability (6 questions)
Question 19
A US online shop has no office in the EU. It ships goods to customers in Germany and France, prices its site in euros, and offers a French-language version. Under Article 3 GDPR, what is the most accurate conclusion?
- AThe GDPR does not apply, because the shop has no establishment in the EU and processes data in the United States
- BThe GDPR applies, since the shop offers goods to people in the EU, as shown by delivery, pricing and language
- CThe GDPR applies only if a national data protection authority has designated the shop as a controller
- DThe GDPR applies only to the personal data of customers who hold a resident EU address, not to casual visitors of the site
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Correct answer: BArticle 3(2)(a) extends the GDPR to controllers without an EU establishment that offer goods or services to data subjects in the Union, and the EDPB territorial scope guidance treats EU delivery, euro pricing and local language as indicators of targeting. Lacking an EU office does not exclude the GDPR, and designation by an authority is not a condition for applicability.
Question 20
A city council plans to install cameras with automatic facial recognition across its main shopping street to detect people on a watch list. Which conclusion about a data protection impact assessment is correct under Article 35 GDPR?
- AA DPIA is not required, because the council is a public body and public bodies are exempt from Article 35
- BA DPIA is required only if a citizen complains after the cameras have started operating
- CA DPIA is optional, because the council can rely on public interest and needs one only for commercial processing
- DA DPIA is required, since this is large-scale systematic monitoring of a public area using biometric data
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Correct answer: DArticle 35(3)(b) and (c) require a DPIA for large-scale processing of special category data, including biometrics used to identify individuals, and for systematic monitoring of publicly accessible areas on a large scale. Public authorities are not exempt, and the assessment must be done before processing starts rather than after a complaint.
Question 21
A company's core business is profiling customers across many websites for advertising. It processes data on millions of individuals and monitors their online behaviour systematically and at scale. Under Article 37 GDPR, what follows?
- AIt may skip a DPO, because a DPO is only required of public authorities that process criminal records
- BIt must designate a DPO, since its core activities involve regular and systematic large-scale monitoring of individuals
- CIt must designate a DPO only if its employees request one in writing before the processing starts
- DIt needs a DPO only when it handles special category data, since behavioural records of web visits are not personal data at all
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Correct answer: BArticle 37(1)(b) requires a DPO where core activities consist of processing that requires regular and systematic large-scale monitoring of data subjects, which describes large-scale profiling for advertising. The requirement is not limited to public authorities, does not depend on employee requests, and behavioural data about web visits is personal data.
Question 22
A hospital's IT team discovers on Monday morning that an unencrypted laptop holding patient records was stolen on Sunday evening. What must the hospital do under Article 33 GDPR, and by when?
- ANotify the supervisory authority within 30 days, once the investigation into the theft has been completed fully
- BNotify only the affected patients, because the supervisory authority is notified only after a court order
- CNotify the supervisory authority without undue delay and, where feasible, within 72 hours of awareness
- DWait until the laptop is recovered, since a breach is not reportable while the data is still in a third party's hands
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Correct answer: CArticle 33(1) requires notification to the supervisory authority without undue delay and, where feasible, within 72 hours of becoming aware of a personal data breach, unless the breach is unlikely to result in a risk. Waiting for recovery, a 30-day period or a court order is not the rule, and the breach is reportable even though the thief holds the data.
Question 23
Which statement about the maximum administrative fines under Article 83 GDPR is correct?
- AThe maximum is always a fixed 20 million euros, regardless of the size of the undertaking involved
- BThe maximum is 4% of the EU turnover only, and worldwide turnover is never taken into account
- CThe maximum is 10 million euros for all infringements, and the higher tier applies only to public authorities
- DThe top tier is 20 million euros or 4% of worldwide annual turnover, whichever is higher
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Correct answer: DArticle 83(5) sets the higher maximum at 20 million euros or 4% of total worldwide annual turnover of the preceding financial year, whichever is higher. The maximum is not a fixed sum regardless of size, worldwide turnover (not only EU turnover) is used, and the 10 million euro tier is a lower maximum rather than a cap for all infringements.
Question 24
A private individual installs a camera at their front door that also records part of the public pavement outside their property. Under the household exemption in Article 2(2)(c) GDPR, which conclusion is correct?
- AThe exemption applies, because the camera is installed on the individual's own property for personal security
- BThe exemption does not apply, because recording public space goes beyond purely personal or household activity
- CThe exemption applies only if the individual has registered the camera with the national data protection authority
- DThe exemption applies, since the footage is never shared, and the individual has no obligation to inform passers-by
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Correct answer: BArticle 2(2)(c) excludes purely personal or household activity, and in Ryneš (C-212/13) the CJEU held that camera recording of a public space is not covered. Being installed on one's own property, or not sharing footage, does not by itself bring the activity within the exemption.
Domain V - Compliance with European Data Protection Law and Regulation (6 questions)
Question 25
An employer wants to monitor employees' work email content to detect data leaks. Which approach best reflects the GDPR's requirements for workplace monitoring?
- ARely on the employees' consent, since they signed the employment contract and agreed to all workplace policies in it
- BRead all emails continuously, because the company owns the email system and everything stored on it
- CCarry out a proportionate assessment, inform staff clearly about the monitoring, and use the least intrusive means
- DMonitor only after a supervisory authority has approved the monitoring method in writing for this employer
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Correct answer: CEmployee monitoring must be lawful, transparent and proportionate, which means assessing necessity, balancing the employer's interest against staff privacy, and using the least intrusive means. Consent in an employment contract is generally not freely given, continuous reading of all emails is disproportionate, and no prior approval by a supervisory authority is needed.
Question 26
A furniture retailer collected a customer's email address when the customer bought a sofa. The sign-up step offered a clear, free opt-out from marketing, which the customer did not use. Six months later the retailer wants to email the customer about a matching cushion set. Under the ePrivacy Directive, what is the position?
- AThe retailer may send it under the soft opt-in for similar products, since a free opt-out was offered at purchase
- BThe retailer may never send it, because any marketing email requires a separate written contract signed by each customer and a notarised copy
- CThe retailer may send it only after a supervisory authority has reviewed the customer's purchase history for this purpose
- DThe retailer may send it only if the customer has previously agreed to receive a paper catalogue by post instead
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Correct answer: AArticle 13(2) of the ePrivacy Directive lets a seller use contact details obtained in a sale for direct marketing of its own similar products, provided the customer was given a free and easy way to object at collection and in each message. Separate notarised contracts, supervisory review of purchase history, or paper-catalogue consent are not required.
Question 27
A website's cookie banner shows a large coloured 'Accept all' button, while users must open several menus to refuse tracking. Which TWO statements about this design are correct? (Choose two.)
- AThe design may be a dark pattern, because it nudges users towards accepting tracking in ways that undermine free choice
- BThe design is lawful, because users can still refuse tracking by opening the settings menus
- CConsent obtained this way may not be freely given, because refusing is made substantially harder than accepting
- DConsent is valid, since the banner appears first and users are free to ignore it without any consequence
- EThe design matters only under the ePrivacy Directive, because the GDPR does not address user interface design
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Correct answer: A, CDeceptive design that makes refusing much harder than accepting can make consent invalid, since consent must be freely given and refusing should not be more burdensome than accepting. Being able to refuse in a hidden menu does not make the design lawful, and the GDPR's consent rules apply to interface design, not only the ePrivacy Directive.
Question 28
Which statement about the EU Artificial Intelligence Act, Regulation (EU) 2024/1689, and its relationship with the GDPR is accurate?
- AThe AI Act replaces the GDPR for all AI systems, so controllers need no longer apply GDPR principles to them
- BThe AI Act prohibits all processing of personal data by AI systems, so only fully anonymised data may ever be used
- CThe AI Act is a directive that member states must transpose before any AI system may be placed on the market
- DThe AI Act takes a risk-based approach and leaves the GDPR in force for personal data used in AI
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Correct answer: DThe AI Act is an EU regulation that sorts AI systems by risk and sets obligations accordingly, and it sits alongside the GDPR rather than replacing it. Personal data used in AI still needs a lawful basis and GDPR compliance. The AI Act does not replace the GDPR, ban all personal data processing, or operate as a directive.
Question 29
A subscriber gave consent to a fitness app to use their health data for personalised recommendations. Consent was given with a single tap, but withdrawal is possible only by writing a letter. Under the GDPR, what is the problem?
- AWithdrawal is not allowed for health data, because the app has a legal duty to keep health records on file
- BWithdrawal must be as easy as giving consent, so a letter-only process is likely non-compliant
- CWithdrawal is permitted only after a supervisory authority has formally approved the subscriber's written request in a separate process
- DWithdrawal is valid only if the subscriber also deletes the app from their device at the same time
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Correct answer: BArticle 7(3) GDPR requires that withdrawing consent be as easy as giving it, and withdrawal does not affect processing carried out before it. A letter-only route for a one-tap consent is likely to breach that rule, while no record-keeping duty or supervisory approval is a condition for withdrawal.
Question 30
An employer asks an employee to provide a full medical history to justify a short period of sickness absence. Which statement best reflects the GDPR's approach to employee health data?
- AHealth data may be requested freely, because the employer owns the employment relationship and all records about the employee and their absences
- BHealth data is special category data, so only necessary information may be sought, with a legal basis and confidentiality
- CThe employee's written consent is enough, and no further limits apply because consent is always freely given in employment
- DHealth data must be deleted once the absence ends, and the employer may never keep any record of sickness absence
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Correct answer: BHealth data is a special category under Article 9, so an employer may process it only where an Article 9(2) condition applies, such as employment law obligations, and must limit requests to what is necessary and keep them confidential. Free requests for full medical histories are not justified, employee consent is generally not freely given in employment, and limited sickness records may be kept for lawful purposes.