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Free Certified Information Privacy Professional / United States (CIPP/US) practice test: 30 questions with answers

30 original questions for Certified Information Privacy Professional / United States (CIPP/US), drawn from every topic area. Answer each one to see whether you got it right and why. No sign-up.

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Certified Information Privacy Professional / United States (CIPP/US) exam guide: topics, cost and format

All 30 Certified Information Privacy Professional / United States (CIPP/US) questions with answers

The same questions as the test above, grouped by exam topic. Open any question to see the answer and explanation.

Domain I - The U.S. Privacy Environment (6 questions)

  1. Question 1

    Compared with many other countries, which description best fits how the United States regulates the privacy of personal information held by private organizations?

    1. AA single comprehensive federal statute that governs all personal data in every industry sector
    2. BA licensing model in which every organization must register with a national data protection authority before processing personal data
    3. CA sectoral model with separate federal laws for health, finance, and children, plus state laws and general consumer protection enforcement
    4. DReliance almost entirely on international treaties that bind private companies directly and override domestic statutes in every sector of the economy
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: C

    The United States generally takes a sectoral approach, with targeted federal laws for specific industries and data types, supplemented by state laws and FTC consumer protection enforcement. A single comprehensive federal statute, a national registration regime, and direct treaty binding of private companies do not describe the U.S. model.

  2. Question 2

    A privacy counsel is asked whether a new state statute can apply to customer records that a federal statute already regulates. The counsel reviews the federal law for language that displaces conflicting state requirements. Which constitutional principle governs the question?

    1. AStare decisis, which requires courts to follow earlier decisions even when a statute's text is clear
    2. BFederal preemption under the Supremacy Clause, which can displace conflicting state law
    3. CSovereign immunity, which bars private parties from suing states over privacy rules
    4. DEqual protection, which requires every state to adopt identical privacy requirements for the same data
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: B

    Under the Supremacy Clause, valid federal law can displace conflicting state law, either through express preemption language or through conflict with federal requirements. Stare decisis, sovereign immunity, and equal protection do not resolve a conflict between a federal statute and a state statute.

  3. Question 3

    An organization builds its privacy program around the Fair Information Practice Principles. Which principle requires the organization to tell individuals what personal information it collects, how it uses that information, and with whom it shares it?

    1. AIndividual participation, which lets people view and correct records about themselves
    2. BNotice and awareness, which requires clear disclosure of information practices
    3. CIntegrity and security, which requires accurate data and protection from misuse
    4. DChoice and consent, which lets individuals decide how their data is used and shared
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: B

    The notice or awareness principle requires organizations to disclose what they collect, how they use it, and who receives it, typically through a privacy notice. Choice concerns consent or opt-out, participation concerns access and correction, and integrity and security concern accuracy and safeguards.

  4. Question 4

    A fitness app's public privacy policy states that it never shares users' health metrics with advertisers. An internal audit finds that the app's advertising SDK sends those metrics to an advertising network. Which statement best describes the company's exposure under the FTC Act?

    1. AThe company is not exposed, because the advertising SDK vendor rather than the company itself transmitted the health metrics to the network
    2. BThe practice is lawful, because a privacy policy only needs to describe the company's internal data handling rules
    3. CThe practice is actionable only if a consumer proves a specific financial loss caused by the sharing
    4. DThe practice may be deceptive, because a material statement in the privacy policy does not match actual data sharing
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: D

    A material misrepresentation in a privacy policy about how data is shared can be a deceptive practice under Section 5 of the FTC Act, even when a vendor's code performs the transfer. Deception does not require proof of a specific financial loss, which is one way it differs from unfairness.

  5. Question 5

    A retailer's loyalty program collects purchase histories and sells them to data brokers. A customer argues that the program violates her Fourth Amendment rights. Which response is most accurate?

    1. AThe Fourth Amendment restricts government searches and seizures, so it does not directly govern a private retailer's data practices
    2. BThe Fourth Amendment applies to the retailer because the loyalty program collects personal data from customers in a routine commercial transaction
    3. CThe Fourth Amendment requires the retailer to obtain a judicial warrant before it sells purchase histories to any third-party company
    4. DThe Fourth Amendment protects only physical property, so purchase histories fall outside its scope entirely
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: A

    The Fourth Amendment limits government searches and seizures, not conduct by private companies acting on their own. A private retailer's data practices are generally governed by statutes, contracts, and consumer protection law instead.

  6. Question 6

    A public school district discloses student education records to a vendor without the parental consent that FERPA generally requires and without any qualifying exception. Which federal agency has primary authority to enforce FERPA?

    1. AThe Federal Trade Commission, through its general authority over unfair and deceptive practices
    2. BThe Department of Health and Human Services, through its Office for Civil Rights
    3. CThe Federal Communications Commission, through its authority over telecommunications carriers
    4. DThe U.S. Department of Education, which can investigate complaints and withhold federal funds
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: D

    FERPA is administered and enforced by the U.S. Department of Education, which can investigate complaints and withhold federal funds from noncompliant institutions. The FTC, the HHS Office for Civil Rights, and the FCC enforce other statutes, namely the FTC Act, HIPAA, and telecommunications rules.

Domain II - Federal Privacy Laws (6 questions)

  1. Question 7

    A health insurer's marketing department wants to send members a communication encouraging them to buy a third-party company's product, and the third party will pay the insurer for each communication sent. Under the HIPAA Privacy Rule as amended by HITECH, what is generally required?

    1. AApproval from the HHS Office for Civil Rights before each communication is sent to members
    2. BOnly a notice in the Notice of Privacy Practices, because marketing is a routine health care operation
    3. CA patient authorization that states the insurer will receive financial remuneration for the communication
    4. DNo action, because communications that mention products are treated as treatment communications
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: C

    The Privacy Rule generally requires an individual's authorization for uses and disclosures of PHI for marketing, and where the covered entity receives financial remuneration from a third party for the communication, the authorization must state that. Marketing is not a routine operation, OCR does not pre-approve communications, and treatment-related communications for which no third-party payment is received fall under different exceptions.

  2. Question 8

    Under Section 5 of the FTC Act, which combination of conditions must be present for a practice to be treated as unfair?

    1. AA written privacy notice, a consumer opt-in, and an independent security audit completed each year
    2. BAny consumer complaint about a practice, regardless of whether any harm occurred or was likely to occur
    3. CA substantial injury that consumers cannot reasonably avoid and that is not outweighed by countervailing benefits
    4. DActual financial loss to a consumer, plus proof that the company intentionally set out to deceive customers about its practices
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: C

    Section 5(n) of the FTC Act defines unfairness as practices that cause or are likely to cause substantial injury that consumers cannot reasonably avoid and that is not outweighed by countervailing benefits. Intent to deceive, a written notice, and an opt-in are not elements of unfairness.

  3. Question 9

    A social app is open to general audiences, but a staff member has actual knowledge that a particular user is an 11-year-old who signed up without parental involvement. The app wants to collect that child's name and email address. What does COPPA generally require before this collection?

    1. AConsent from the child, if the child agrees to the app's terms of service before signing up
    2. BVerifiable parental consent before collecting the child's personal information
    3. CA privacy notice posted on the app's home page, with no further action required from the operator
    4. DDeletion of the child's account and data after the child has used the app for one full year
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: B

    COPPA requires operators that collect personal information from children under 13, including those with actual knowledge that a user is under 13, to obtain verifiable parental consent first. The child's own agreement, a home-page notice alone, or later deletion does not satisfy the rule.

  4. Question 10

    A hospital hires an outside billing company that will receive and process patients' protected health information on the hospital's behalf. Under HIPAA, which document must the hospital have in place with the billing company?

    1. AA business associate agreement that limits how the billing company may use and disclose the PHI
    2. BA patient authorization form signed separately for each claim the billing company processes
    3. CA joint data controller agreement that makes both organizations equally responsible for patient data
    4. DA certificate from the FTC showing that the billing company meets federal data security rules
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: A

    A covered entity must have satisfactory assurances, typically a business associate agreement, before a business associate handles PHI on its behalf. Patient authorizations are not generally needed for routine payment activities, the FTC does not certify HIPAA compliance, and joint controller agreements are a GDPR concept.

  5. Question 11

    A bank wants to share a customer's nonpublic personal information with an unaffiliated company, and no statutory exception applies. Under the GLBA Financial Privacy Rule, what must the bank generally do first?

    1. AGive the customer a privacy notice and a reasonable opportunity to opt out of the sharing
    2. BObtain the customer's written opt-in consent before any sharing takes place with that company
    3. CRegister the sharing arrangement in advance with the Consumer Financial Protection Bureau for review
    4. DConfirm that the recipient has passed a security audit approved by the FTC for financial data
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: A

    The GLBA Financial Privacy Rule generally requires a privacy notice and an opt-out opportunity before sharing nonpublic personal information with nonaffiliated third parties, subject to exceptions such as service providers. Opt-in consent, advance CFPB registration, and FTC-approved audits are not the general requirement.

  6. Question 12

    A staffing firm is considering rejecting an applicant partly because of information in a background check report that a consumer reporting agency supplied. Under the Fair Credit Reporting Act, what must the firm do before making the final adverse decision?

    1. AObtain the applicant's signed agreement that the final decision will not be disputed later
    2. BFile a written notice with the Federal Trade Commission describing the report, the reason, and contact details
    3. CDelete the background report from its files immediately after making the final decision
    4. DSend a pre-adverse action notice with a copy of the report and a summary of the applicant's FCRA rights
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: D

    The FCRA requires an employer that may take adverse action based on a consumer report to first send a pre-adverse action notice, with a copy of the report and a summary of rights, so the applicant can respond. Filing with the FTC, immediate deletion, and a dispute waiver are not FCRA requirements.

Domain III - Government and Court Access to Private-sector Information (6 questions)

  1. Question 13

    Investigators want several weeks of historical cell-site location records from a wireless carrier to reconstruct a suspect's movements. Under the U.S. Supreme Court decision in Carpenter v. United States, what process is generally required?

    1. ANothing beyond the carrier's standard terms of service, since the customer shared the location data voluntarily
    2. BA subpoena issued by a prosecutor, because the carrier holds the records as part of its business
    3. CA National Security Letter, because the records relate to a criminal investigation rather than intelligence work
    4. DA warrant supported by probable cause, because the records reveal a detailed history of a person's movements
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: D

    In Carpenter, the Court held that acquiring historical cell-site location records generally requires a warrant supported by probable cause, because the records reveal an intimate picture of a person's movements. Subpoenas, National Security Letters, and consent through terms of service do not meet that standard for this type of data.

  2. Question 14

    A criminal investigator wants to capture the real-time content of a suspect's telephone conversations as they happen. Which federal statute provides the framework for this kind of interception, and what does it generally require?

    1. AThe pen register statute, which requires only a showing that dialing information is relevant to an investigation
    2. BThe Stored Communications Act, which allows a prosecutor to obtain live call content with a grand jury subpoena
    3. CThe Wiretap Act, which generally requires a court order based on probable cause and additional statutory findings
    4. DThe CALEA statute, which itself authorizes each individual interception without any court order at all
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: C

    Real-time interception of communication content falls under the Wiretap Act, Title III, which generally requires a court order grounded in probable cause and other statutory findings. The pen register statute covers only non-content dialing and routing data, the SCA governs stored communications rather than live calls, and CALEA requires carriers to build interception capability without authorizing any interception itself.

  3. Question 15

    Which two of the following statements about government access to private-sector information in the United States are accurate? (Choose two.)

    1. AThe USA FREEDOM Act of 2015 ended the bulk collection of telephone metadata under Section 215 of the USA PATRIOT Act
    2. BThe CLOUD Act requires U.S. providers to disclose data only when that data is stored on servers located inside the United States
    3. CThe FBI can issue National Security Letters in national security investigations without first obtaining a court order
    4. DSection 702 of FISA allows warrantless targeting of U.S. persons who are located inside the United States
    5. EThe Wiretap Act allows real-time interception of communications whenever a law enforcement officer believes a crime is occurring
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: A, C

    The USA FREEDOM Act ended bulk collection of telephone metadata under Section 215, and the FBI can issue National Security Letters in national security investigations without a court order. The CLOUD Act reaches data within a provider's control regardless of where it is stored, Section 702 targets non-U.S. persons reasonably believed to be located abroad, and the Wiretap Act does not allow interception based on an officer's belief alone.

  4. Question 16

    In a civil lawsuit, the plaintiff asks the company to produce every employee email for the past decade, including messages sent from personal accounts. Which principle most directly limits this request under the Federal Rules of Civil Procedure?

    1. AOnly documents a party has already filed with the court may be requested in discovery
    2. BAny document an employer holds may be demanded in discovery, because employers have no reasonable privacy interest in business records
    3. CDiscovery requests must be approved by a judge before they are served on any other party
    4. DDiscovery is limited to matters relevant to a claim or defense and proportional to the needs of the case
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: D

    Federal Rule of Civil Procedure 26(b)(1) limits discovery to nonprivileged matter that is relevant to a claim or defense and proportional to the needs of the case, and Rule 26(c) allows protective orders for privacy concerns. Employers do have privacy interests that courts weigh, pre-approval by a judge is not required, and discovery is not limited to filed documents.

  5. Question 17

    Police ask a bank for a customer's account statements, and the bank hands them over voluntarily. The customer later challenges the request under the Fourth Amendment. Which Supreme Court doctrine has generally held that individuals lack Fourth Amendment protection in records voluntarily shared with third parties?

    1. AThe third-party doctrine, applied in United States v. Miller and Smith v. Maryland
    2. BThe good-faith exception, which lets officers rely on a warrant later found to lack probable cause
    3. CThe plain view doctrine, which allows officers to seize items they can see during a lawful search
    4. DThe fruit of the poisonous tree doctrine, which excludes evidence derived from an earlier unlawful search
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: A

    The third-party doctrine, applied in Miller and Smith, holds that people generally have no reasonable expectation of privacy in information voluntarily given to a third party such as a bank or phone company, although Carpenter narrowed it for cell-site records. The good-faith exception, plain view, and fruit of the poisonous tree doctrines govern whether evidence can be used, not whether a shared record is protected.

  6. Question 18

    A former employee files a discrimination lawsuit against the company. The IT team plans to continue the automatic deletion of that employee's email and chat messages, which the company's retention schedule requires. What should the company do?

    1. AContinue automatic deletion, because electronic messages have no preservation duty until a judge orders preservation
    2. BSuspend routine deletion and preserve relevant electronic information under a litigation hold
    3. CDelete only the messages the company considers unhelpful, since the company controls its own business records
    4. DMove the former employee's messages to an executive's personal account so they are no longer company records
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: B

    Once litigation is reasonably anticipated, the company has a duty to preserve relevant electronically stored information, and a litigation hold suspends routine deletion. Waiting for a court order, deleting selected messages, or moving them to personal accounts risks spoliation sanctions.

Domain IV - Workplace Privacy (6 questions)

  1. Question 19

    A company's job application asks every applicant to list any prior arrests and convictions. The applicant's state has a law that prohibits employers from asking about criminal history on initial job applications. Which statement best describes the company's position?

    1. AThe company is compliant, because the state law restricts only background check vendors and not employers themselves
    2. BThe company is compliant, because federal law requires every applicant to disclose all prior convictions
    3. CThe company may be noncompliant, because the state law restricts criminal history questions on initial applications
    4. DThe company is compliant, because applicants agree to disclosure simply by submitting the application form
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: C

    Ban-the-box laws limit when and how employers may ask about criminal history, often barring the question on initial applications. Submitting a form does not override a statutory prohibition, and federal law does not generally require applicants to disclose all prior convictions to private employers.

  2. Question 20

    A retail chain wants to require every new hire to take a polygraph examination as a condition of employment. Which federal law generally restricts private employers from doing this?

    1. AThe Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act, which governs how employers may use medical testing and disclosures
    2. BThe Employee Polygraph Protection Act, which generally bars most private employers from requiring polygraph exams
    3. CThe Children's Online Privacy Protection Act, which limits how employers collect data from workers under age 13
    4. DThe Video Privacy Protection Act, which generally restricts employers from recording video of employees on company premises
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: B

    The EPPA generally prohibits most private employers from requiring or requesting polygraph tests of applicants or employees, with narrow exceptions for certain security and pharmaceutical settings. HIPAA, COPPA, and the VPPA address health records, children's online data, and video rental records, not general workplace polygraph use.

  3. Question 21

    An employer learns that an applicant's family medical history suggests a higher risk of a genetic condition, and considers that information when deciding whether to hire the applicant. Which federal law most directly prohibits this use?

    1. AThe Fair Credit Reporting Act, which requires employers to obtain authorization before reviewing applicants' medical records
    2. BThe Family Educational Rights and Privacy Act, which limits how employers may share applicants' health data with others
    3. CThe Genetic Information Nondiscrimination Act, which bars employers from using genetic information in hiring decisions
    4. DThe Telephone Consumer Protection Act, which restricts employers from contacting applicants by phone about health risks
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: C

    GINA prohibits employers from using genetic information, which includes family medical history, in employment decisions and restricts how employers acquire it. The FCRA, FERPA, and TCPA address consumer reports, education records, and telephone calls, so none of them governs this particular use.

  4. Question 22

    Which two of the following statements about employer monitoring of employees in the United States are accurate? (Choose two.)

    1. ASeveral states, including Connecticut and New York, require employers to notify employees before electronically monitoring their activity
    2. BThe Electronic Communications Privacy Act prohibits all employer monitoring of employee email, regardless of notice or consent
    3. CMonitoring that chills concerted activity protected by Section 7 of the NLRA can create legal risk, even in non-union workplaces
    4. DAn employer may review an employee's personal social media accounts at any time, because the company pays for the employee's internet access
    5. EFederal law requires written consent before an employer records video of workplace common areas
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: A, C

    Several states require notice of electronic monitoring, and Section 7 of the NLRA protects concerted activity in union and non-union workplaces, so monitoring that chills that activity creates risk. The ECPA does not prohibit all monitoring, federal law does not require written consent for common-area video, and paying for internet access does not authorize review of personal social media.

  5. Question 23

    During a job interview, a hiring manager asks a candidate to log in to a personal social media account so the manager can review the candidate's posts. The candidate lives in a state that prohibits employers from requiring access to personal accounts. Which assessment is most accurate?

    1. AThe request is likely prohibited by state law, which restricts employers from requiring access to personal accounts
    2. BThe request is permitted, because the candidate is applying for a job and the manager has a legitimate business interest
    3. CThe request is permitted if the candidate later receives a rejection letter that explains the decision in full detail
    4. DThe request violates the Fair Credit Reporting Act, because social media posts are always consumer reports
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: A

    Many states prohibit employers from requiring applicants or employees to disclose login credentials for personal accounts, and a legitimate business interest does not override that restriction. The FCRA applies to reports from consumer reporting agencies, not automatically to an employer's own review of posts, and a rejection letter does not cure the request.

  6. Question 24

    An employer collects the results of a medical examination during an employee's onboarding. Under the Americans with Disabilities Act, how must the employer keep those results?

    1. AIn separate, confidential medical files, kept apart from the employee's general personnel file
    2. BIn the employee's general personnel file, so supervisors can review any accommodation needs quickly
    3. COn a shared company intranet, where managers can search for relevant health conditions by name
    4. DIn the employee's public performance review, so the health information is documented consistently over time
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: A

    The ADA requires employers to keep medical information about employees confidential, in separate medical files apart from general personnel records, with access limited to appropriate personnel. Storing the results in the general personnel file, on a shared intranet, or in performance reviews would violate that confidentiality requirement.

Domain V - State Privacy Laws (6 questions)

  1. Question 25

    A California consumer asks a business to delete the personal information it has collected about them. Under the CCPA as amended by the CPRA, which statement best describes the business's obligation?

    1. AThe business must delete the information within 24 hours of the request and may never retain any record that the request was received at all
    2. BThe business generally must delete the information, subject to statutory exceptions, and direct its service providers to do the same
    3. CThe business may refuse any deletion request from a consumer who has made a prior purchase from the business
    4. DThe business must delete the information only after the consumer pays a verification fee in advance
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: B

    The CCPA gives consumers a right to request deletion, and businesses must delete covered personal information unless a statutory exception applies, and must also direct service providers and contractors to delete it. The other options invent a 24-hour deadline, a fee requirement, and a purchase-based denial that the statute does not impose.

  2. Question 26

    A state comprehensive consumer privacy law, such as Virginia's, does not create a private right of action for consumers. Which statement best describes how such a law is generally enforced?

    1. AThe state attorney general enforces the law, and individual consumers cannot sue directly under it
    2. BThe Federal Trade Commission is the sole enforcer, and states may only enforce their own breach notification laws
    3. CConsumers may sue for a fixed statutory amount per violation, without any government involvement at all
    4. DEach consumer must first file a complaint with a federal agency before any state enforcement action can begin
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: A

    Virginia's Consumer Data Protection Act is enforced by the state attorney general, and it does not give consumers a direct lawsuit. The FTC is not the sole enforcer of state privacy statutes, consumers do not have to file with a federal agency first, and fixed per-violation damages are not part of this statute.

  3. Question 27

    Which two of the following statements about state data breach notification laws are accurate? (Choose two.)

    1. AAll 50 states and the District of Columbia have data breach notification laws
    2. BBreach notification laws are uniform across states, so the same content and deadlines apply everywhere
    3. CMany state laws exempt encrypted data from notice requirements when the encryption key was not also compromised
    4. DA breach notice is never required when the affected data is stored only on the company's own servers
    5. EFederal law preempts all state breach notification laws for companies that are not HIPAA covered entities
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: A, C

    All 50 states and the District of Columbia have breach notification statutes, and many exempt encrypted data when the key was not also acquired. The laws are not uniform in content or deadlines, data stored on a company's own servers can still trigger notice, and no comprehensive federal statute preempts state breach laws for most non-HIPAA entities.

  4. Question 28

    An Illinois employer collects workers' fingerprints for timekeeping without a published written retention policy and without the workers' written consent. Which statement best describes the employer's exposure under the Biometric Information Privacy Act?

    1. AOnly the Illinois attorney general may bring a claim, so the employer faces no private lawsuits at all
    2. BLiability arises only if the fingerprints are later sold to a third party for marketing purposes
    3. CThe employer is protected, because fingerprints are excluded from state privacy law when used for timekeeping
    4. DAffected individuals may have a private right of action, which can produce liquidated damages for each violation
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: D

    BIPA requires a publicly available written retention policy and informed written consent before collecting biometric identifiers such as fingerprints, and it gives affected individuals a private right of action with liquidated damages. Attorney general-only enforcement, a sale-only trigger, and a timekeeping exclusion do not match the statute's structure.

  5. Question 29

    A company wants to use an automated tool to screen resumes for job openings in New York City. Under New York City's Local Law 144, which step must the employer generally complete before using the tool?

    1. ARegistration of the tool with the New York State Department of Labor, with no further steps required
    2. BAn independent bias audit, with a summary of its results made publicly available
    3. CA certification that the tool was built in the United States and uses no third-party data sources
    4. DWritten approval from every candidate who will be screened by the tool before the screening begins
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: B

    Local Law 144 requires an independent bias audit of an automated employment decision tool before use, a publicly available summary of the audit results, and notice to candidates. It does not require state registration, a country-of-origin certification, or each candidate's written approval.

  6. Question 30

    A California consumer finds that a business's file on them lists an incorrect home address. Under the CCPA as amended by the CPRA, which right does the consumer have?

    1. AThe right to require the business to stop collecting any personal information about them permanently, regardless of any legal duty
    2. BThe right to receive a payment from the business for each inaccuracy found in its records
    3. CThe right to force the business to publish its internal correction logs on a public website
    4. DThe right to request correction of inaccurate personal information, which the business must address after verification
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: D

    The CPRA added a right to correct inaccurate personal information, which businesses must address in response to a verifiable consumer request, subject to statutory exceptions. The statute does not require a permanent halt to collection, payments for errors, or publication of internal correction logs.