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Free IIBA-CCA practice test: 30 questions with answers
30 original questions for Certificate in Cybersecurity Analysis (IIBA-CCA), drawn from every topic area. Answer each one to see whether you got it right and why. No sign-up.
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All 30 IIBA-CCA questions with answers
The same questions as the test above, grouped by exam topic. Open any question to see the answer and explanation.
Data Security (4 questions)
Question 1
A company labels its customer payment records as 'Restricted' and its marketing brochures as 'Public'. What is the main purpose of this labelling?
- ATo sort documents by the department that created them so that each department can archive its own files separately
- BTo decide which employees receive performance bonuses, based on the number of files each person has labelled
- CTo give each file a unique reference number that the backup system uses to delete files automatically after a set period
- DTo set handling and protection requirements, such as access and encryption, that match each category's sensitivity
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Correct answer: DInformation classification assigns each asset a sensitivity level so that handling rules, access limits and protection such as encryption can be matched to that level. Sorting by department, numbering files for deletion and tying labels to bonuses are not the purpose of classification.
Question 2
Which two statements about cryptography are correct? (Choose two.)
- ASymmetric encryption uses the same secret key for both encryption and decryption
- BHashing is a reversible process that recovers the original data when the correct key is supplied
- CEncryption protects confidentiality, while a hash is typically used to check that data has not been altered
- DA public key is kept secret by its owner, while the matching private key is shared with everyone who sends messages
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Correct answer: A, CSymmetric encryption uses one shared secret key, and hashing is used to detect changes, so both statements are correct. Hashing is one-way rather than reversible, and in public-key cryptography the private key is the secret part while the public key is shared.
Question 3
Which control protects customer data while it travels between a customer's browser and the web application?
- AFull-disk encryption on the application server's storage volumes, so that stolen drives cannot be read
- BEncrypted offsite backups of the customer database, held in a secure vault that only the operations team can open
- CRole-based access rules inside the database schema, so that each application account sees only the tables it needs
- DTransport Layer Security (TLS) on the connection, so the data is encrypted while it moves across the network
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Correct answer: DTLS encrypts data in transit between endpoints, which is what protects a browser-to-application connection. Full-disk encryption and encrypted backups protect data at rest, and schema access rules are authorization controls rather than encryption in transit.
Question 4
A supplier sends a contract signed with its private key, and the customer verifies the signature using the supplier's public key. Which security properties does this provide?
- AConfidentiality of the contract text, because the document is hidden from anyone who does not hold the decryption key
- BIntegrity of the document, authentication of the signer, and non-repudiation of the signature
- CAvailability of the contract for both parties, because the signed file can always be retrieved during an outage
- DAnonymity for the supplier, because the customer cannot identify the individual who created the signature
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Correct answer: BA digital signature shows the document has not changed since signing, ties it to the signer's key and prevents the signer from later denying it. Signing does not hide the contract, so confidentiality, availability and anonymity are not the properties it provides.
User Access Control (4 questions)
Question 5
An employee signs in with a password and a one-time code, and the system then checks which files that employee may open. Which statement correctly describes the two steps?
- AThe sign-in proves who the user is (authentication) and the permission check decides what they may access (authorization)
- BThe sign-in decides what the user may access (authorization) and the later permission check proves who the user really is (authentication)
- CBoth steps are authorization because each one grants the user access to a protected resource in the system
- DAuthentication is needed only for administrators, while authorization applies to regular users and their files
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Correct answer: AAuthentication verifies identity, which the password and one-time code do, while authorization decides which resources an authenticated identity may use. The option that reverses the two terms is wrong, and the other options misplace or drop one of the two concepts.
Question 6
Which practice most reduces the risk from privileged accounts, such as database administrator accounts?
- ASharing one administrator password among the operations team so that access is never blocked during an incident
- BRequiring administrators to use a separate privileged account for admin tasks, with its use logged and reviewed
- CGranting domain administrator rights to every developer so that deployments are not delayed by access requests
- DTurning off audit logs for administrator accounts to reduce storage costs on the logging platform
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Correct answer: BSeparate privileged accounts with logging and review limit what admin activity can happen and make it traceable. Shared passwords, disabled audit logs and broad admin rights all remove accountability and increase the damage a single compromise can do.
Question 7
A company assigns access to job roles such as 'claims adjuster' and 'claims supervisor', and each new employee gets the permissions of their role. Which access control model does this describe?
- ARole-based access control, in which permissions are attached to job roles and users inherit them from their assigned role
- BNetwork-based access control, in which a fixed list of approved IP addresses decides which devices may connect to the system
- CDiscretionary access control, in which the owner of each file decides who may open it and what they may do
- DMandatory access control, in which system-enforced labels on data and clearances on users decide access, and owners cannot change it
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Correct answer: ARole-based access control groups permissions into roles and assigns users to roles, which matches the claims roles described. Discretionary and mandatory models are based on file owners or system labels, and network-based control filters devices by address rather than by job role.
Question 8
A business analyst is documenting access requirements for a new HR system. Which requirement is the most complete and testable?
- AEach user role lists the specific records it may view, create, change and delete, with approval from the data owner
- BUsers should only see the HR information they need to do their job, and access should feel quick and simple for employees
- CThe system should be secure and protect personnel information from unauthorized people at all times
- DAdministrators should be able to grant any permission whenever a manager makes a request by email or phone
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Correct answer: AA testable access requirement states, for each role, exactly which records and actions are allowed and who approves them, so it can be verified. The other options are vague, describe a preference or grant unlimited permissions on request.
Cybersecurity Overview and Basic Concepts (4 questions)
Question 9
A business analyst is asked to support a project that adds multi-factor authentication to a customer portal. Which contribution is most appropriate for the business analyst?
- AConfiguring the multi-factor settings directly in the production identity platform before the security team has reviewed them
- BWriting the authentication module code so the developers can meet the delivery date without waiting for requirements
- CEliciting security needs from stakeholders and tracing them to the sign-in behaviour the solution must provide
- DApproving the residual authentication risk on behalf of the security owner so the release is not delayed
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Correct answer: CThe business analyst's core role is to elicit, document and trace security requirements with stakeholders, not to configure production systems, write code or accept risk. The other options describe work owned by technical teams or risk owners, and two of them skip required reviews.
Question 10
A new data retention control has been agreed. The project needs one tool that shows, for each activity, who is responsible for doing it, who is accountable for the result, and who is consulted or informed. Which tool fits this need?
- AA SWOT analysis that compares internal strengths and weaknesses with external opportunities and threats
- BA fishbone diagram that groups possible causes of a problem into categories such as people, process and technology
- CA RACI matrix that maps each activity to the roles that are responsible, accountable, consulted and informed
- DA risk heat map that plots the likelihood and impact of each identified risk on a colour-coded grid
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Correct answer: CA RACI matrix assigns each activity to Responsible, Accountable, Consulted and Informed roles, which is exactly the question being asked. A SWOT analysis, a fishbone diagram and a risk heat map are useful analysis tools, but none of them assigns roles to activities.
Question 11
A company wants a documented, risk-based approach to managing information security across the whole organization, covering policies, controls and continual improvement. Which concept describes this?
- AA penetration testing program that simulates attacks against the organization's internet-facing systems
- BAn information security management system (ISMS), as described in ISO/IEC 27001
- CA disaster recovery plan that restores the IT services supporting the most critical business processes
- DA firewall rule set that blocks all inbound traffic that has not been explicitly approved by the network team
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Correct answer: BAn information security management system is the management framework of policies, risk-based controls and improvement cycles described in ISO/IEC 27001. Penetration testing, disaster recovery and firewall rules are single activities or technical controls, not an organization-wide management system.
Question 12
A retailer keeps customer names, email addresses and purchase history for loyalty offers. A customer asks for a copy of the personal data the retailer holds and for that data to be deleted. Which concept does the request mainly relate to?
- ANetwork segmentation that separates the marketing servers from the finance systems on the same network
- BData loss prevention rules that block sensitive attachments from leaving the corporate email system
- CData subject rights under privacy regulation, such as the right of access and the right to erasure
- DVulnerability scanning that checks the customer database servers for missing security patches each month
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Correct answer: CAccess and erasure requests are data subject rights under privacy regulations such as GDPR, which the retailer must handle for personal data it holds. The other options describe security controls for data loss, network design and patching, which do not answer an individual's request about their own data.
Enterprise Risk (4 questions)
Question 13
Which statement best defines cyber risk?
- AThe potential for loss or harm to the organization when a threat exploits a vulnerability in its information assets
- BThe certainty that a security control will fail the moment an attacker targets the system it protects
- CThe list of security products purchased in the current budget cycle, reviewed by the executive committee each year
- DThe total annual premium paid for an insurance policy that covers losses from data breaches and cyber incidents
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Correct answer: ACyber risk combines the likelihood of a threat exploiting a vulnerability with the resulting harm to information assets and the business. The other options describe a product list, a control certainty and an insurance cost, none of which defines risk itself.
Question 14
A company is starting a cyber risk assessment for a new customer billing system. Which step should the business analyst complete first?
- APurchasing a web application firewall for the billing portal so that the most common attacks are blocked from the start
- BIdentifying the information assets the billing system uses or stores, and their value to the business
- CScheduling the annual penetration test for the billing system to take place at the end of next quarter
- DSelecting a cyber insurance provider that will pay for any losses resulting from failures in the billing system
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Correct answer: BA risk assessment starts by identifying the assets at stake and their value, then moves on to threats, vulnerabilities and impact. Buying a firewall, scheduling a test or choosing insurance are responses that come only after the risks have been understood.
Question 15
A business analyst is preparing a business case for a security investment. Which input would be most useful for justifying the investment?
- AA general statement that the organization wants to be more secure and to reduce its exposure to threats in the future
- BEstimated loss from the specific risks the investment would reduce, with the assumptions behind the estimates
- CThe security product features that the vendor sales team recommends in its marketing material
- DThe personal preference of the chief executive for one brand of security tool over the others
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Correct answer: BA business case is strongest when it links the investment to quantified losses from named risks, with the assumptions stated so reviewers can test them. A general aim, vendor marketing or a personal brand preference does not show the value the investment creates.
Question 16
A business analyst maps the process for handling customer payment details. Staff currently email the details to a shared mailbox for manual entry. What is the main value of this process map for cyber risk?
- AIt shows where sensitive data leaves controlled systems and exposes weak points in the process for risk assessment
- BIt replaces the need to assess the technical controls on the shared mailbox, because the process is documented
- CIt shows the monthly licence cost of the shared mailbox so the budget can be reduced without affecting operations
- DIt proves that the process complies with the payment card standard, so no further testing of the mailbox is needed
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Correct answer: AA process map reveals where sensitive data moves outside controlled systems and where manual steps create vulnerabilities, which feeds the risk assessment. The other options wrongly claim that a process map proves compliance, replaces technical testing or serves as a cost tool.
Solution Delivery (4 questions)
Question 17
Which statement is written as a well-formed security requirement?
- AThe system should be as secure as reasonably possible and should protect all user information from unauthorized access at all times
- BThe team will consider adding account lockout to the sign-in process in a future release if time allows
- CDevelopers should make the sign-in page look modern and easy to use so that customers want to stay signed in
- DThe system must lock a user account after a defined number of consecutive failed sign-in attempts and alert the security team
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Correct answer: DA well-formed requirement is specific and testable and states the behaviour the system must have, here lockout after a defined number of failures with an alert. The others are vague, describe a design preference or defer the requirement without a commitment.
Question 18
A company rents virtual machines, storage and networking from a cloud provider, but it installs and patches its own operating systems and applications. Which cloud service model does this describe?
- ASoftware as a Service (SaaS), in which the provider runs a complete application that the customer uses through a browser
- BPlatform as a Service (PaaS), in which the provider manages the runtime and tools so the customer deploys its own code
- CInfrastructure as a Service (IaaS), in which the provider supplies the computing, storage and network resources
- DOn-premises hosting, in which the company owns and manages all of its hardware inside its own data centre
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Correct answer: CIaaS gives the customer virtual machines, storage and networking while the customer keeps responsibility for the operating system, middleware and applications. SaaS and PaaS shift more management to the provider, and on-premises hosting involves no cloud provider at all.
Question 19
A business analyst maps each security requirement for a new order-tracking solution to the component that will meet it, such as the sign-in service, the database encryption and the audit log. What is the main benefit of this mapping?
- AIt shows which component satisfies each requirement, so gaps and untraceable requirements are visible before the build starts
- BIt guarantees that the finished solution will pass every external audit, so no further testing or review will be needed after launch
- CIt removes the need for developers to review the requirements again, because each requirement is now linked to a single component
- DIt shows the vendor price for each component so that procurement can negotiate discounts before the contract is signed
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Correct answer: AMapping requirements to components creates traceability, so gaps and untested requirements are visible before build and test. It does not guarantee audit results, remove the need for review or serve as a pricing tool.
Question 20
A business analyst documents how supplier payments are approved today and how they should be approved after the change, including new security checkpoints. Which comparison is this?
- AA usability test that observes staff completing payment approvals on a clickable prototype to identify confusing or slow steps
- BA gap analysis comparing the current and target states, to show what must change to meet the security requirements
- CA penetration test that attempts to bypass the approval steps to find weaknesses in the payment workflow
- DA cost estimate for the new approval controls, listing licences, hours and training needed for each team
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Correct answer: BA gap analysis compares the current process with the target process and identifies the changes needed, including new security checkpoints. Usability testing, penetration testing and cost estimating are useful activities but do not compare current and target states.
Cybersecurity Risks and Controls (4 questions)
Question 21
A hospital's appointment system is taken offline by ransomware, so clinic staff cannot view or change schedules for two days. Which security property has been compromised?
- AConfidentiality
- BIntegrity
- CAvailability
- DNon-repudiation
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Correct answer: CAvailability means authorized users can reach systems and data when they need them, and ransomware that takes the system offline attacks that property. Confidentiality concerns unauthorized disclosure, integrity concerns unauthorized change and non-repudiation concerns denying actions, none of which is the main effect described.
Question 22
Which statement correctly distinguishes a threat from a vulnerability?
- AA vulnerability is a planned attack launched by an external criminal group against the company's systems, while a threat is the unpatched server that allows the attack
- BBoth terms describe the same thing and can be used interchangeably in a risk register without any loss of meaning
- CA threat is any security control that has been installed, while a vulnerability is any control that has been removed
- DA threat is an actor or event that could exploit a weakness, while a vulnerability is the weakness itself, such as an unpatched server
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Correct answer: DA threat is the actor or event that could take advantage of a weakness, and a vulnerability is the weakness, such as an unpatched server. The option that reverses the two terms is wrong, and the other options misdefine the terms or merge two distinct concepts.
Question 23
A bank requires a second employee to approve any wire transfer above an internal limit before the payment is released. What type of control is this?
- AA detective control that reviews completed transfers afterward to identify any that were made without proper authority
- BA corrective control that recovers the funds and restores the account after a fraudulent transfer is discovered
- CA preventive control that stops an unauthorized transfer from being released before it is completed
- DA deterrent control that warns employees that their transfers are monitored, to discourage misuse of the system
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Correct answer: CA second-person approval before release is a preventive control because it stops an unauthorized transfer before it happens. The detective option describes after-the-fact review, the corrective option describes recovery and the deterrent option describes warnings that discourage misuse without blocking the transfer.
Question 24
Which impact of a cyber-attack is best described as reputational?
- AThe IT team spends many extra hours rebuilding the servers and restoring the affected applications from backup
- BThe company pays forensic specialists to investigate how the attacker entered the network and what data was taken
- CThe company pays a ransom demand in cryptocurrency to receive the decryption key for the encrypted files
- DCustomers stop buying from the company because they no longer trust it to protect their personal information
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Correct answer: DReputational impact is the loss of customer trust and business that follows a breach. Rebuilding servers, hiring forensic specialists and paying a ransom are direct costs of responding to the attack rather than damage to how the company is perceived.
Operations (3 questions)
Question 25
A company decides not to launch a new mobile feature because the security risk is above what the business is willing to accept. Which risk treatment does this decision represent?
- AMitigate, by adding controls that reduce the likelihood or impact of the risk while the feature still goes ahead
- BAccept, by documenting the risk and continuing with the feature without adding any new controls to reduce it
- CTransfer, by buying insurance or outsourcing so that a third party carries part of the financial impact
- DAvoid, by deciding not to start the activity that creates the risk, so the exposure never arises
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Correct answer: DAvoidance removes the risk by not starting the activity that creates it, which is what dropping the feature does. Accepting keeps the risk, transferring shifts financial impact to a third party and mitigating reduces the risk while the activity continues.
Question 26
Which two examples are useful security metrics to report to executives? (Choose two.)
- APercentage of critical vulnerabilities fixed within the agreed remediation timeframe, tracked each month
- BNumber of users who reported a simulated phishing email, shown as a trend across successive test campaigns
- CThe colour scheme used on the internal security portal and the font choices in the training handouts
- DThe name of the vendor that supplies the office printers and the date its service contract was signed
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Correct answer: A, BRemediation timeliness and phishing-report trends show how well security risks are being handled and how aware users are, which is what executives need. The colour scheme and printer vendor details have no bearing on security posture.
Question 27
Which two activities are part of a root cause analysis after a security incident? (Choose two.)
- AAsking why each contributing event happened until the underlying cause is identified, rather than stopping at the first answer
- BBuilding a fishbone diagram that groups contributing factors into categories such as people, process and technology
- CRestoring the affected servers to their previous state and closing the incident ticket as soon as service is back
- DPublishing the names of the employees involved in the incident to the whole company so that they are held accountable
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Correct answer: A, BRoot cause analysis uses methods such as repeated why questions and fishbone diagrams to find underlying causes rather than symptoms. Closing the ticket after restoring service does not identify causes, and publishing staff names is not part of the analysis.
Securing the Layers (3 questions)
Question 28
In a layered approach to security, which layer does endpoint security mainly protect?
- AThe network links and perimeter devices that carry traffic between the organization's sites and the internet
- BThe end-user devices such as laptops, desktops and phones, where malware and unauthorized programs could run
- CThe physical building access controls that restrict who can enter the data centre and the office areas
- DThe approval steps in the business workflow that govern changes to customer records and pricing data
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Correct answer: BEndpoint security protects the devices where users and applications run, such as laptops, desktops and phones, against malware and misuse. The network, physical and workflow options describe other layers or business controls rather than the endpoint layer.
Question 29
A web application builds database queries by inserting user-supplied text directly into SQL statements, which allows SQL injection. Which application-layer control most directly addresses this?
- ANetwork firewall rules that block inbound connections to the database port from any system outside the application tier
- BLonger sign-in passwords for database administrators, so that attackers cannot guess the account credentials
- CFull-disk encryption on the database server, so that copied database files cannot be read by attackers
- DParameterized queries with validated input, so user data is never treated as executable SQL
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Correct answer: DParameterized queries keep user input as data rather than as SQL code, which removes the injection path at the application layer. Firewall rules, disk encryption and password length are useful controls, but they do not stop the application from building unsafe queries.
Question 30
An organization wants to stop unapproved programs from running on employee laptops, even when a user downloads them from the internet. Which endpoint control best fits this goal?
- AAnnual security awareness training that teaches employees to recognize suspicious programs and report them promptly
- BEmail filtering that scans inbound messages for known malicious attachments and quarantines suspicious files
- CApplication allow-listing, which permits only approved programs to run and blocks everything else by default
- DQuarterly vulnerability scans that report missing patches on laptops so that the IT team can schedule the updates
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Correct answer: CApplication allow-listing blocks any program that is not on the approved list, including programs downloaded from the internet. Email filtering, training and vulnerability scanning are valuable, but none of them stops an unapproved program from running on the endpoint.