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Free Certified Cybersecurity Operations Analyst (CCOA) practice test: 30 questions with answers
30 original questions for Certified Cybersecurity Operations Analyst (CCOA), drawn from every topic area. Answer each one to see whether you got it right and why. No sign-up.
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Certified Cybersecurity Operations Analyst (CCOA) exam guide: topics, cost and format
All 30 Certified Cybersecurity Operations Analyst (CCOA) questions with answers
The same questions as the test above, grouped by exam topic. Open any question to see the answer and explanation.
Incident Detection and Response (6 questions)
Question 1
A SIEM alert shows repeated failed sign-ins against a service account, followed by a successful sign-in from an unfamiliar country. What should the analyst do first?
- ADisable every user account in the affected business unit as a precaution until the investigation is complete
- BDelete the alert from the queue, because the successful sign-in shows that the attack has already failed
- CReset the domain administrator password and wait for the next scheduled change window before taking any further action
- DCompare the events with the account's normal activity and, if they are suspicious, isolate the account while preserving the logs
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Correct answer: DValidating the events against normal behaviour decides whether this is a true incident, and isolating the account while keeping the logs contains it without destroying evidence. Disabling a whole business unit, deleting the alert, or waiting for a change window each act before the facts are known, or leave a live compromise running.
Question 2
Which indicator is most strongly associated with credential dumping from memory on a Windows host?
- AA scheduled task that runs a PowerShell backup script at the same time every Monday morning
- BUnexpected access to the LSASS process memory by a process that is not a trusted system component
- CSeveral users changing their desktop wallpapers and screen savers within the same working day
- DA browser extension that updates itself automatically in the background once every single week
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Correct answer: BCredential dumping tools read secrets from the memory of the local security authority process, so access to it by an unexpected process is a strong indicator. The scheduled backup, wallpaper changes, and browser updates are routine activity that a monitoring rule should not treat as compromise.
Question 3
During containment of a ransomware incident, which priority matters most?
- ARestoring encrypted files from backup before the root cause of the infection has been identified
- BIsolating the affected hosts from the network to stop lateral spread while preserving the evidence
- CRebooting all servers so that any encryption processes that are still running are cleared from memory
- DNotifying every customer about the incident before the scope of the compromise has been confirmed
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Correct answer: BStopping spread limits how many systems are encrypted, and preserving evidence lets the team find the entry point and scope. Restoring before the root cause is known can reinfect the environment, while rebooting or notifying customers early can destroy evidence or cause premature disclosure.
Question 4
Which log source is most useful for establishing what a compromised user account did after it signed in?
- AThe printer queue log that records print jobs submitted from the marketing floor each day
- BThe web server access log for a public marketing website that is unrelated to the internal network
- CThe authentication and endpoint process logs covering the commands and file access in the session
- DThe building badge reader log for the visitor entrance that is used by external contractors and guests
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Correct answer: CEndpoint process and file access logs tied to the authenticated session show the actions taken with the account after sign-in. The printer, public web server, and building badge logs do not record the internal activity of that session.
Question 5
Which two characteristics make a detection use case useful in practice? (Choose two.)
- AIt states the behaviour it detects, the data it needs, and the response that analysts should take
- BIt is retired as soon as it produces any single false positive during the evaluation period
- CIt is written only after a breach has been confirmed by the incident response team in writing
- DIt alerts on a single event so that combined events do not hide the detail of each action taken
- EIt has been tested against known malicious and benign samples before it is put into production
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Correct answer: A, EA useful use case is specific about the behaviour, the data source, and the expected response, and it has been validated against both malicious and benign activity. Retiring on the first false positive or writing rules only after a breach ignores tuning, and alerting on single events often misses the sequences that matter.
Question 6
An analyst sees a large volume of DNS queries to random-looking subdomains of one domain from a single host. What does this most likely suggest?
- AA printer discovering other devices on the network through the local multicast name resolution service
- BA normal caching resolver refreshing its records after the time-to-live value has expired
- CAn update check from a legitimate operating system patch service running in the background
- DPossible command-and-control or data exfiltration activity using DNS tunneling techniques
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Correct answer: DLong random subdomains used in high volume are a common signature of DNS tunneling, where data or commands are encoded in query names. Caching, patch checks, and local discovery produce predictable names and low volumes, so they do not match this pattern.
Technology Essentials (6 questions)
Question 7
Which networking control is most relevant when segmenting a network to limit lateral movement?
- AThe brand of the switches installed in each rack on the data center floor
- BThe number of hosts that can be connected to each access point in the building
- CFirewall rules that restrict traffic between network zones according to business need
- DThe speed of the internet link that connects the head office to the cloud provider
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Correct answer: CFirewall rules between zones determine which traffic may cross a boundary, which is what stops an attacker from moving freely between segments. Switch brand, access point density, and link speed affect performance or procurement rather than the reach of an intrusion.
Question 8
Which statement about containers is accurate?
- AContainers do not need image scanning because the container runtime isolates all of their software content
- BContainers each run a separate full operating system kernel, which makes them as heavy as virtual machines
- CContainers cannot be used to run network services that are exposed to external users on the internet
- DContainers share the host operating system kernel while isolating processes and file system views
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Correct answer: DContainers use the host kernel with namespaces and control groups to isolate processes, which is why they are lighter than virtual machines. Each of the other statements is wrong: containers do not run their own kernels, they are routinely used for exposed services, and isolation does not remove vulnerabilities inside images.
Question 9
Which protocol and port pairing is commonly used for encrypted remote shell access?
- ATelnet on port 23 with the session content sent in clear text across the network
- BHTTP on port 80 to a web-based administration console that does not use encryption
- CSMB on port 445, used for file sharing between hosts on the internal network segments
- DSSH on port 22, with encrypted sessions that can use key-based authentication for users
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Correct answer: DSSH on port 22 provides an encrypted remote shell and supports key-based authentication. Telnet and unencrypted HTTP expose the session, and SMB is a file sharing protocol rather than a remote shell.
Question 10
A developer commits an API token to a public code repository. What risk does this create?
- AAnyone who reads the repository can use the token to call the API with the permissions it grants
- BThe token is automatically revoked by the code hosting platform the moment that it is committed
- CThe repository becomes unusable for other developers on the project until the token is removed
- DThe token can only be used from the developer's own workstation because it is tied to that device
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Correct answer: AA committed token is a usable credential for anyone who can read the repository, including automated scanners that harvest secrets. Platform revocation is not guaranteed, and the token is not bound to one workstation, so it can be used from anywhere.
Question 11
Which operating system control limits the damage a compromised user process can cause?
- ADisabling the local host firewall so that the process can reach the network without any barriers
- BRunning services with only the privileges they need, rather than as an administrator account
- CGiving every service account the same password so that support tasks are simpler for the team
- DGranting write permissions to system folders so that updates can be installed more quickly overall
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Correct answer: BLeast privilege means a compromised service can only do what its account allows, which limits what the attacker can change. Disabling the firewall, sharing passwords, and writable system folders each widen what a compromised process can reach or alter.
Question 12
Which description of a virtual machine is most accurate?
- AAn emulated computer with its own operating system, managed by a hypervisor on a host system
- BA shared folder that stores the configuration files for several applications on one server
- CA process that runs directly on the host kernel without any hypervisor involvement at all
- DA network switch that is configured to route traffic between separate subnets in the building
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Correct answer: AA virtual machine presents virtual hardware and runs its own guest operating system, while a hypervisor schedules and isolates it on the host. The other descriptions match processes, folders, or switches, none of which is a virtual machine.
Cybersecurity Principles and Risks (6 questions)
Question 13
Which principle best describes the purpose of a security model such as least privilege?
- ALimiting each subject's access to what is necessary for its role and the tasks it performs
- BGiving all users broad access so that work is never blocked by permission problems at any stage
- CRecording every action so that users are aware they can be investigated after the fact at any point
- DEncrypting every file so that the organization does not have to classify its data in the first place
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Correct answer: AA security model such as least privilege constrains each subject to the minimum access its role requires, which bounds the damage a mistake or compromise can cause. Broad access, monitoring alone, and encryption without classification each fail to limit what a subject is allowed to do.
Question 14
Which risk area is most associated with a third-party software component that contains a known backdoor?
- APhysical security risk from unauthorized people gaining access to the data center floor space
- BSupply chain risk arising from a compromised dependency that is used inside the product
- CData retention risk from keeping records for a longer period than the retention policy allows
- DNetwork segmentation risk from an overly broad firewall rule set on the internal network zones
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Correct answer: BA compromised dependency that is shipped inside a product is a supply chain risk, because the weakness enters through a trusted upstream source. Physical access, retention, and firewall scope are real risks but do not describe how a backdoor arrives through a component.
Question 15
Which two elements make the ownership of a security control clear? (Choose two.)
- AThe vendor's marketing description of the product's features and the benefits it promises
- BA documented responsibility matrix that names an owner for each control in the environment
- CThe network diagram that shows the connections between the main systems in the environment
- DA named control owner who has the authority to fund, change, and report on the control
- EThe list of software versions that are installed on the endpoints across the organization
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Correct answer: B, DOwnership is clear when a responsibility matrix names the owner and that owner has the authority to run the control. Marketing copy, network diagrams, and version lists describe the technology, not who is accountable for the control.
Question 16
Which statement about compliance and security is accurate?
- APassing a compliance checklist guarantees that the organization is secure against every attack
- BCompliance is the sole responsibility of the security team and does not involve business owners
- CCompliance sets minimum obligations, while security requires controls that match the actual risk
- DSecurity controls become unnecessary once an external audit has been completed successfully once
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Correct answer: CCompliance is a floor set by external or internal requirements, and real security depends on controls sized to the organization's risks. A checklist cannot guarantee security, and business owners and audits are both part of the picture rather than substitutes for controls.
Question 17
Which risk area is most associated with a misconfigured storage service that exposes customer files to the public internet?
- ASupply chain risk arising from a third-party library that has a published vulnerability in its code
- BEndpoint risk arising from outdated antivirus signatures on the laptops that are used in the office
- CData risk arising from insecure access settings on a storage service that holds sensitive customer records
- DWeb application risk arising from a missing input validation check on the login form of the site
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Correct answer: CExposure of files through a storage service is primarily a data risk caused by an insecure access setting on a store of sensitive records. The other options describe real risks in other areas, such as supply chain, endpoints, and web applications, that do not explain this exposure.
Question 18
Which two are core functions of the NIST Cybersecurity Framework 2.0? (Choose two.)
- AGovern
- BHarden
- CSanitize
- DRecover
- EQuarantine
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Correct answer: A, DNIST CSF 2.0 has six functions: Govern, Identify, Protect, Detect, Respond, and Recover. Harden, sanitize, and quarantine describe actions that sit inside those functions rather than being functions of the framework themselves.
Adversarial Tactics, Techniques, and Procedures (6 questions)
Question 19
Which two techniques are commonly used by threat actors during initial access? (Choose two.)
- APhishing emails with a malicious attachment that are sent to targeted employees in the company
- BScanning a patched server for known weaknesses after it has been restored from its backup image
- CCollecting asset data from the company's approved configuration database for internal planning
- DEncrypting files for an authorized backup job that is scheduled in the maintenance window each week
- EAbusing valid credentials that were obtained from an earlier data breach at a third-party service
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Correct answer: A, EInitial access is the stage where an attacker gets a first foothold, commonly through phishing or with credentials stolen elsewhere. Scanning a restored server, collecting inventory data, and running an authorized backup are activities that occur after access or are legitimate operations.
Question 20
What is the main purpose of a penetration test in a security program?
- ATo test whether defenses can be bypassed under agreed rules of engagement and to validate the controls
- BTo demonstrate that every system in the organization is completely free of security weaknesses at once
- CTo replace vulnerability management with a single annual exercise that is carried out for the business
- DTo train new staff in the internal use of the organization's security tools during their induction each year
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Correct answer: AA penetration test is an authorized attempt to bypass defenses within agreed rules, which tests whether controls work in practice. It does not replace ongoing vulnerability management, cannot prove the absence of weaknesses, and is not a training exercise.
Question 21
Which source provides a catalogue of adversary tactics and techniques that defenders can map their detections to?
- AA vendor's published list of product release dates and planned end-of-support dates for the year
- BMITRE ATT&CK, which catalogues adversary tactics, techniques, and procedures by stage of attack
- CA company's internal list of approved software that staff are permitted to install on their devices
- DThe annual budget spreadsheet prepared by the finance department and circulated to the executive team
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Correct answer: BMITRE ATT&CK organizes observed adversary behaviour into tactics and techniques that teams use to map coverage and build detections. Release calendars, approved software lists, and budgets are useful operational documents but do not describe adversary behaviour.
Question 22
Which stage of the attack lifecycle describes an attacker moving from one compromised system to another inside the network?
- AReconnaissance, which is the gathering of information about the target before any system is compromised
- BExfiltration, which is the final transfer of stolen data out of the organization to an external location
- CLateral movement, which uses stolen credentials or remote services to reach other internal systems
- DInitial access through a phishing email that is delivered to a user's mailbox during the working day
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Correct answer: CLateral movement is the stage in which an attacker extends its foothold from one host to others, typically with valid credentials or remote administration tools. Reconnaissance and initial access come earlier in the lifecycle, and exfiltration comes after the attacker has reached the data.
Question 23
Which statement about threat intelligence is most accurate?
- AThreat intelligence gives context about adversaries and indicators that can improve detection and response
- BIntelligence is useful only when it is published openly so that every competitor in the market can use it
- CIndicators from threat feeds should always be trusted and blocked without any validation against the environment
- DThreat intelligence replaces the need for internal monitoring of the organization's own systems and networks
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Correct answer: AThreat intelligence adds context about who attacks, how, and what to look for, which improves detection and prioritization. Feeds need validation before blocking, and intelligence complements rather than replaces internal monitoring of your own environment.
Question 24
Which two items are part of a penetration test's rules of engagement? (Choose two.)
- AThe systems in scope and the testing window that the sponsor has agreed to in advance of the test
- BThe tester's personal preference for the tools that they like to use during each engagement
- CThe names of the staff members who will be targeted by a phishing simulation during the test
- DThe exact list of vulnerabilities that the tester is required to find before the test can close
- EWritten authorization from an appropriate owner before any testing activity is started at all
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Correct answer: A, ERules of engagement define the scope, timing, and authorization for the test, which protects both the tester and the organization. The tester's tool preferences and a required list of findings do not govern the engagement, and phishing targets are a specific design choice rather than a general rule.
Securing Assets (6 questions)
Question 25
Which control best supports recovery after a ransomware event?
- ATested offline or immutable backups, with documented recovery procedures for critical systems
- BKeeping backups mounted and writable on the same network segment as the production systems
- CRelying on file history on each user's laptop as the only copy of the business data held there
- DStoring a single backup copy in the same building as the production environment for quick access
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Correct answer: AOffline or immutable backups cannot be encrypted by malware on the live network, and tested recovery procedures show that restoration will work. Writable mounted backups, laptop-only copies, and one building's copy each leave the data exposed to the same attack or disaster.
Question 26
Which step is part of tracking vulnerability remediation properly?
- AClosing a vulnerability record once the scan has run without showing the finding on the next pass
- BRecording the owner, the due date, and the verification evidence for each fix or accepted risk
- CAssigning every finding to the security analyst regardless of which team owns the affected asset
- DDeleting findings from the tracker when they become older than the reporting period in use
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Correct answer: BTracking requires an owner, a due date, and evidence that the fix or accepted risk is valid, so that closure can be verified rather than assumed. Closing on a single clean scan, deleting old findings, or assigning everything to the analyst each hides or misplaces the remediation work.
Question 27
Which practice best secures an asset that its vendor no longer supports?
- AConnecting it to the internet so that the vendor can push fixes to it whenever the vendor chooses
- BContinuing to use it without any changes because it still operates correctly for the team day to day
- CRemoving its security logs so that the disk space can be used for newer data on the same device
- DIsolating the asset, restricting its access, and tracking its replacement or its compensating controls
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Correct answer: DAn unsupported asset will not receive security fixes, so isolation, access restriction, and a funded replacement or compensating controls are the appropriate measures. Continuing unchanged, removing logs, and exposing the device to the internet each increase exposure.
Question 28
Which step belongs to a sound access management process when an employee leaves the organization?
- ARevoking access promptly when employment ends and recovering assets such as laptops and access cards
- BLeaving the accounts active so that the former employee can help with handover tasks in the weeks after
- CSharing the leaver's password with the team so that the mailbox and shared files remain accessible to all
- DDeleting the leaver's logs from the logging platform to free up space for the new monitoring data each month
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Correct answer: ATimely revocation and asset recovery close the access and physical routes that a former employee could still use. Keeping accounts active, sharing passwords, and deleting logs each leave access open or destroy the records needed for later review.
Question 29
Which practice protects the data on a laptop if the device is stolen?
- AA screen saver that locks the display after ten minutes of inactivity, but with no other protection on it
- BFull disk encryption with a strong unlock method and keys that are managed by the organization centrally
- CA sticker on the device asking anyone who finds it to return it to a listed address by post or courier
- DTurning off the laptop's wireless adapter during working hours so that it cannot connect to any network
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Correct answer: BFull disk encryption keeps the stored data unreadable without the unlock credential, even when the drive is removed from the device. Screen locks, return stickers, and disabled wireless adapters do not protect data that an attacker can read from the stolen drive.
Question 30
Which two controls help secure a database that holds sensitive records? (Choose two.)
- ALeast-privilege database roles with administrator accounts kept separate from everyday user accounts
- BA single shared database administrator password that is known to every engineer on the data team
- CEncryption of backups and of the data at rest, with the encryption keys managed under strict control
- DA database listener that is exposed to every network so that application servers can always connect
- EDisabling the audit logs on the database server to reduce the storage used by logs over time
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Correct answer: A, CLeast-privilege roles limit what each account can do, and encryption protects data in backups and on disk even when the storage is accessed directly. Shared administrator passwords, open listeners, and disabled audit logs each remove accountability or increase the reach of an attacker.