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Free Certified Information Systems Auditor (CISA) practice test: 30 questions with answers

30 original questions for Certified Information Systems Auditor (CISA), drawn from every topic area. Answer each one to see whether you got it right and why. No sign-up.

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Certified Information Systems Auditor (CISA) exam guide: topics, cost and format

All 30 Certified Information Systems Auditor (CISA) questions with answers

The same questions as the test above, grouped by exam topic. Open any question to see the answer and explanation.

Information Systems Operations and Business Resilience (6 questions)

  1. Question 1

    Which metric defines the maximum acceptable amount of data loss, measured in time, after a disruption?

    1. ARecovery time objective (RTO), which is the maximum acceptable time to restore a service after an outage
    2. BMean time between failures (MTBF), which measures the average operating time between faults in equipment
    3. CRecovery point objective (RPO), which is the maximum acceptable age of the data restored after a failure
    4. DMaximum tolerable outage (MTO), which is the longest the whole business can be disrupted before severe harm
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: C

    The recovery point objective is the maximum acceptable age of data restored after a failure, which measures data loss in time. RTO measures how long restoration may take, MTBF measures reliability, and MTO measures the outage the business can tolerate overall.

  2. Question 2

    Which disaster recovery test provides realistic assurance without disrupting production?

    1. ANo testing, on the basis that the recovery plan has been written and approved by senior management
    2. BA full production failover at peak business hours, with no prior testing of the recovery plan at all
    3. CA parallel test that brings the systems up at the recovery site while production continues to run normally
    4. DA checklist review only, completed by the help desk without involving the recovery teams in any way
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: C

    A parallel test brings systems up at the recovery site while production continues, which gives realistic assurance without disrupting operations. A production failover at peak hours causes disruption, and reviews or no testing do not prove the plan works.

  3. Question 3

    Which control best detects unauthorised changes to production configurations?

    1. AA password change policy requiring a new password every thirty days for all users of the systems
    2. BA configuration monitoring tool that compares current settings with an approved baseline and reports differences
    3. CA firewall rule that blocks all outbound traffic from the production servers to any destination on the network
    4. DMandatory annual leave for all staff who have access to the production systems in the organisation
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: B

    A configuration monitoring tool that compares current settings with an approved baseline detects unauthorised changes. Password policies, outbound blocks and leave policies address other risks and do not compare configurations to a baseline.

  4. Question 4

    What is the primary purpose of a change management process?

    1. ATo ensure that changes are authorised, tested and documented before they are implemented in production
    2. BTo delay all changes until the end of the financial year, in order to minimise the impact on operations
    3. CTo allow developers to change production systems directly whenever they believe a fix is needed urgently
    4. DTo replace the incident management process with a more formal approach to handling user requests
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: A

    Change management ensures changes are authorised, tested and documented before production implementation, which reduces disruption and risk. Direct developer changes bypass control, delays are not the purpose, and change management does not replace incident management.

  5. Question 5

    Which element should an incident response plan for the IS function include?

    1. AA list of the vendor's marketing claims about the product's security features, for customer conversations
    2. BDefined roles, escalation paths, and steps for containment, eradication and recovery of the affected systems
    3. CThe names of the team's social media accounts, which are used to publish public messages about incidents
    4. DA requirement that all incidents be reported to the press within one hour of their discovery by staff
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: B

    An incident response plan defines roles, escalation paths and the steps for containment, eradication and recovery. Marketing claims, press requirements and social media accounts do not guide the technical response.

  6. Question 6

    A business impact analysis is performed to determine what?

    1. AThe criticality of business processes, and the recovery priorities and dependencies that those processes require
    2. BThe number of users who have administrator access across all of the systems in the whole organisation
    3. CThe accounting value of every IT asset in the fixed-asset register, for the depreciation calculations
    4. DThe vendor cost of each software licence held, for the financial year's budget planning and approvals
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: A

    A business impact analysis determines the criticality of processes and the recovery priorities and dependencies they need. Administrator counts, asset values and licence costs are inputs to other processes rather than the purpose of the analysis.

Protection of Information Assets (6 questions)

  1. Question 7

    Which control best protects sensitive data at rest from unauthorised access?

    1. AStoring the data in a plain text file on a shared network folder that all staff in the company can open
    2. BRelying on the network perimeter alone, with no controls at all on the data inside the perimeter itself
    3. CEncrypting the data at rest with strong encryption, with the encryption keys managed separately from the data
    4. DKeeping an unencrypted copy of the data on removable media in the staff member's desk drawer at work
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: C

    Strong encryption at rest, with keys managed separately, protects data even if storage is accessed without authorisation. Plain text on shared folders, perimeter-only controls and unencrypted removable media all expose the data.

  2. Question 8

    Which access control principle requires that users have only the access needed for their assigned job?

    1. ALeast privilege, which grants users only the permissions needed for their assigned tasks and nothing more
    2. BMandatory access control, which applies labels that are set centrally by the system to each object
    3. CSeparation of duties, which divides critical tasks among different individuals to reduce the risk of fraud
    4. DShared accounts, which allow a team to reuse one login for convenience across the many users in it
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: A

    Least privilege grants only the permissions needed for assigned tasks. Separation of duties addresses conflicts between tasks, mandatory access control applies central labels, and shared accounts remove accountability.

  3. Question 9

    Which tool helps an organisation identify and prioritise known vulnerabilities in its systems?

    1. AA penetration test report from last year, which the security team keeps for reference purposes only
    2. BA vulnerability scanning tool that reports weaknesses with a severity rating to support remediation work
    3. CA backup verification report confirming that the backups completed successfully on the previous night
    4. DA firewall log that records each connection blocked at the perimeter of the network during the month
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: B

    A vulnerability scanning tool identifies known weaknesses and rates their severity to prioritise remediation. A last-year report is out of date, firewall logs record blocked traffic, and backup reports confirm recovery, not vulnerabilities.

  4. Question 10

    What is the primary purpose of data classification?

    1. ATo list the vendors that will be permitted to store the organisation's data in the cloud environment
    2. BTo decide which data can be deleted immediately to free up storage space in the data centre
    3. CTo define the colour scheme used for documents in the organisation's intranet portal for staff
    4. DTo determine the appropriate level of protection for information, based on its sensitivity and value
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: D

    Data classification determines the level of protection information needs, based on its sensitivity and value. Deletion decisions, colour schemes and vendor lists are separate matters.

  5. Question 11

    Which approach best supports secure logging for an IS environment?

    1. AStoring the logs on the same server that they record, so that they are kept together with the system
    2. BDeleting the logs after each system reboot, so that the storage used by the logs stays small over time
    3. CTurning off logging for privileged accounts, to reduce the volume of entries that are recorded each day
    4. DSending logs to a central, protected location with restricted access and defined retention periods
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: D

    Central, protected log storage with restricted access and retention periods keeps logs trustworthy and available for investigation. Logs on the same server can be altered if it is compromised, and turning off or deleting logs removes accountability.

  6. Question 12

    Which privacy principle requires that personal data be collected only for specified and legitimate purposes?

    1. APurpose limitation, which restricts the collection and use of personal data to stated, legitimate purposes
    2. BData integrity, which requires that data remains accurate and complete throughout its life in the systems
    3. CData availability, which requires that data be accessible whenever it is needed for the business operations
    4. DData portability, which requires the transfer of personal data between two systems whenever it is requested
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: A

    Purpose limitation restricts collection and use of personal data to stated, legitimate purposes. Availability, integrity and portability are important data qualities or rights, but they do not restrict the purpose of collection.

Governance and Management of Information Technology (6 questions)

  1. Question 13

    Which document sets the high-level direction and expectations for information security across the organisation?

    1. AA technical standard for the firewall rule syntax used on one specific vendor's appliances in the network
    2. BA procedure for resetting an individual user's password, written by the help desk team for its own staff
    3. CAn information security policy, approved by senior management, that states the objectives and expectations
    4. DA user manual for the email client that the company provides to its staff for everyday use at work
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: C

    An information security policy approved by senior management sets the high-level direction and expectations for security. Procedures, technical standards and user manuals operate at lower levels and do not set organisation-wide direction.

  2. Question 14

    Which governance body is responsible for approving the IT strategy and ensuring that it aligns with business objectives?

    1. AThe board of directors and senior management, who approve and oversee the IT strategy as a whole
    2. BThe system administrators, who maintain the configurations that the IT strategy requires for the systems
    3. CThe help desk manager, who handles the day-to-day incident queue for the users across the organisation
    4. DThe developers, who build and maintain the systems that the business uses for its daily operations
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: A

    The board and senior management approve and oversee the IT strategy and its alignment with business objectives. Administrators, help desk managers and developers execute the strategy but do not approve it.

  3. Question 15

    Which framework provides governance and management objectives for enterprise IT?

    1. AITIL, which focuses on service management practices for delivering IT services to the business
    2. BISO 9001, which focuses on quality management systems in organisations across many different sectors
    3. CCOBIT, which provides governance and management objectives for enterprise information and technology
    4. DPRINCE2, which provides a method for managing projects through defined stages with clear roles
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: C

    COBIT provides governance and management objectives for enterprise IT. ITIL focuses on service management, ISO 9001 on quality management, and PRINCE2 on project management, so none of them is primarily an enterprise IT governance framework.

  4. Question 16

    A company must show that its IT investments support its business goals. Which governance mechanism best supports this?

    1. AApproving every IT purchase personally by the chief executive, regardless of its size or strategic value
    2. BLimiting the IT budget to the previous year's spending, with no link at all to the business goals
    3. CTracking IT projects only by the number of hours logged by the developers working on each project
    4. DUsing a benefits realisation process that links IT investments to measurable business outcomes
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: D

    A benefits realisation process links IT investments to measurable business outcomes, which demonstrates alignment. Personal approval of every purchase, fixed budgets and hour tracking do not show whether investments deliver business value.

  5. Question 17

    Which control best supports segregation of duties in the IT function?

    1. AGiving developers production administrator rights so that they can fix issues quickly without waiting
    2. BAllowing the same administrator to create user accounts and also approve the access requests for them
    3. CSeparating the duties of requesting, approving and implementing changes among different people
    4. DCombining the security and operations functions under one manager to reduce the overhead of management
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: C

    Separating requesting, approving and implementing changes among different people reduces the opportunity for error or fraud. Combining create and approve roles, giving developers production rights and merging security with operations all remove that separation.

  6. Question 18

    Which TWO are benefits of a clearly defined IT governance structure? (Choose two.)

    1. ADecisions are made without clear accountability, which speeds up the approval process for the team
    2. BRoles and responsibilities for IT decisions are clear, which reduces duplication and gaps in coverage
    3. CRisk is managed informally by individual teams, with no reporting of it to senior management at all
    4. DPerformance and risk are reported to the board, which enables informed oversight of the IT function
    5. EPolicies are written once and never reviewed, so they remain fixed for the lifetime of the system
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: B, D

    Clear roles reduce duplication and gaps, and regular reporting to the board enables informed oversight. Unclear accountability, informal risk management and never-reviewed policies weaken governance rather than strengthening it.

Information Systems Auditing Process (6 questions)

  1. Question 19

    An IS auditor is planning an audit of a payroll system. Which planning approach is most appropriate?

    1. ASelecting only the systems that the audit committee has mentioned, without considering the risk level
    2. BAuditing every system in the organisation each year, so that no area is ever missed by the audit
    3. CStarting fieldwork before reviewing prior audit reports, so that the interviews begin without delay
    4. DA risk-based audit plan that prioritises the areas with the highest inherent and control risk
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: D

    A risk-based plan focuses limited audit effort on the areas where risk is highest, which is the standard planning approach. Auditing everything every year is not practical, and starting without reviewing prior reports or ignoring risk leads to poorly targeted work.

  2. Question 20

    Which type of audit evidence is generally considered the most reliable?

    1. AVerbal statements from the process owner describing how the control normally operates in practice
    2. BEvidence that the auditor obtains directly from an independent source, such as a system-generated report
    3. CScreenshots supplied by the department being audited, taken on the day that the audit fieldwork begins
    4. DSummaries prepared by the department's manager at the request of the auditee for the audit file
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: B

    Evidence obtained directly by the auditor from an independent source, such as a system-generated report, is more reliable than statements or material prepared by the auditee. Verbal statements and auditee-prepared summaries are weaker evidence, and screenshots are a single moment chosen by the auditee.

  3. Question 21

    An auditor needs results from a sample that can be projected to the whole population of transactions. Which sampling approach allows this?

    1. AJudgemental sampling of the largest transactions, chosen to illustrate the most important cases
    2. BStatistical random sampling, where each item in the population has a known probability of selection
    3. CHaphazard sampling of whichever records are easiest to access on the day of the test
    4. DSampling only the transactions that the process owner recommends as typical examples of the process
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: B

    Statistical random sampling gives each item a known probability of selection, which allows results to be projected to the population with a stated confidence. Judgemental, haphazard and owner-selected samples cannot support statistical projection.

  4. Question 22

    What is the primary purpose of an IS audit charter?

    1. ATo list the technical configurations of each server in the data centre for the audit team's reference only
    2. BTo set out the authority, responsibility and scope of the audit function, approved by the governing body
    3. CTo define the password policy that the IT department must follow for every system the audit team reviews
    4. DTo record the audit team's hourly rates and billing terms with each business unit that it audits
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: B

    The audit charter sets out the authority, responsibility and scope of the audit function and is approved by the governing body, such as the audit committee. Server configurations, billing terms and password policy are outside its purpose.

  5. Question 23

    Which TWO are key responsibilities of an IS auditor during the fieldwork phase? (Choose two.)

    1. AGathering sufficient and appropriate evidence to support the conclusions reached in the audit report
    2. BImplementing the remediation of control weaknesses before the audit report has been issued to management
    3. CDocumenting the work performed and the evidence relied on in the audit working papers
    4. DApproving the management responses to audit findings on behalf of the process owner being audited
    5. EReviewing the business strategy and setting the organisation's IT risk appetite for the coming year
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: A, C

    During fieldwork the auditor gathers evidence to support conclusions and documents the work in working papers. Implementing fixes, approving management responses and setting risk appetite are responsibilities of management, not of the independent auditor.

  6. Question 24

    An IS audit engagement is starting. Which step should come first?

    1. ADefining the audit objectives and scope, based on the risk assessment and the audit universe
    2. BIssuing the final audit report to the auditee before any testing has been planned for the engagement
    3. CRequesting that management approve each control before any review of the control has been started
    4. DInterviewing every staff member in the department before the scope of the engagement has been defined
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: A

    Defining objectives and scope from the risk assessment and audit universe is the first step, because everything else depends on it. Reporting before testing, approving controls before review and interviewing everyone before scoping all reverse the logical order of the engagement.

Information Systems Acquisition, Development and Implementation (6 questions)

  1. Question 25

    In which phase of a system development project should user acceptance testing take place?

    1. AThe feasibility study, which determines whether the project is worth starting in the first place
    2. BThe post-implementation review, held after the system has been in production for a full year
    3. CThe requirements gathering, before any design or build work has been started by the development team
    4. DThe testing phase, before the system moves into production and is accepted by the business owners
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: D

    User acceptance testing belongs in the testing phase, before the system moves to production and is accepted by the business. Feasibility studies and requirements gathering come before any system exists to test, and post-implementation reviews come after go-live.

  2. Question 26

    A project is running late and over budget. Which action should the IS auditor recommend first?

    1. ARecommending a review of the project's status and risks against the approved plan and business case
    2. BRecommending that testing be dropped to recover the schedule, with no other change to the plan
    3. CRecommending that the project be cancelled immediately, without reviewing the causes of the delay
    4. DRecommending that the project be extended without any change to its scope, budget or governance arrangements
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: A

    A review of status and risks against the approved plan and business case establishes the facts before any decision is made. Cancelling without review, dropping testing and extending without changes all make decisions without evidence.

  3. Question 27

    Which TWO controls are important when acquiring a third-party software package? (Choose two.)

    1. AEvaluating the vendor's security and continuity arrangements against the organisation's requirements
    2. BAccepting the vendor's standard contract without reviewing its service levels or the right to audit
    3. CAllowing the vendor to install the package in production without any acceptance testing by the business
    4. DUsing the vendor's default administrator password during implementation, for simplicity of setup later
    5. EIncluding the right to audit and service-level terms in the contract with the vendor for the package
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: A, E

    Evaluating the vendor's security and continuity, and including audit rights and service levels in the contract, both protect the organisation after acquisition. Accepting a standard contract without review, installing without testing and keeping default passwords all leave gaps.

  4. Question 28

    Which development approach delivers working software in short, repeated cycles with frequent stakeholder feedback?

    1. AThe waterfall model, which completes each phase in sequence before the next phase is allowed to begin
    2. BAn agile approach, which delivers working increments in short iterations with frequent stakeholder feedback
    3. CThe big-bang model, which deploys the whole system in one release after all of the development is complete
    4. DA prototype that is discarded once the design is agreed, without any further use in the project at all
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: B

    Agile delivers working increments in short iterations with regular feedback from stakeholders. Waterfall is sequential, big-bang deploys once at the end, and throwaway prototypes do not form the delivered system.

  5. Question 29

    Which control is most important before a new application goes live in production?

    1. AA go-live approval based on successful testing, validated data migration and a documented rollback plan
    2. BAllowing developers to deploy directly to production without any review by the operations team beforehand
    3. CTurning off all logging during the cutover, so that the operations team is not overwhelmed by the log entries
    4. DDeleting the old system's data immediately, so that users cannot access the legacy records after the cutover
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: A

    A go-live approval based on testing, validated data migration and a rollback plan is the key control before production. Deleting legacy data, bypassing operations review and turning off logging each remove a safeguard at the point of greatest risk.

  6. Question 30

    Which TWO are key risks of a poorly managed IT project? (Choose two.)

    1. AScope creep that increases cost and delays delivery without any corresponding change in the approval
    2. BClear milestones with stakeholder sign-off at each stage, which keeps the project on track as planned
    3. CDocumented requirements that are approved before design, which reduce rework later in the project
    4. DRegular status reporting to the steering committee, which surfaces issues early in the project
    5. EBenefits that are never measured after go-live, so that the value delivered cannot be confirmed
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: A, E

    Uncontrolled scope creep and unmeasured benefits are classic project risks. Clear milestones, approved requirements and regular reporting are controls that reduce risk rather than create it.