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Free Certified Information Security Manager (CISM) practice test: 30 questions with answers
30 original questions for Certified Information Security Manager (CISM), drawn from every topic area. Answer each one to see whether you got it right and why. No sign-up.
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Certified Information Security Manager (CISM) exam guide: topics, cost and format
All 30 Certified Information Security Manager (CISM) questions with answers
The same questions as the test above, grouped by exam topic. Open any question to see the answer and explanation.
Information Security Program (8 questions)
Question 1
Which element is the foundation of an information security program that can be measured and improved over time?
- AA set of security tools, purchased and deployed across all systems at the start of the program
- BA large security team, whose size is the main indicator of how mature the program is
- CA documented security architecture, with controls mapped to requirements and reviewed regularly
- DA yearly awareness event, held in the largest office of the organisation to reach most staff
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Correct answer: CA documented architecture with controls mapped to requirements, reviewed regularly, gives the program a measurable basis for improvement. Tools without architecture, team size and yearly events do not show whether the program is effective.
Question 2
The information security manager wants to measure whether the program is effective. Which type of metric is most useful?
- AActivity metrics that count how many security training sessions were run in the year
- BOutcome metrics that show whether the risk objectives are being achieved
- CVolume metrics that count how many emails were scanned and how many were blocked
- DCompliance metrics that show whether each form in the security file has been completed
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Correct answer: BOutcome metrics show whether the program is achieving its objectives, which is what effectiveness means. Activity, volume and form-completion metrics show work done rather than results.
Question 3
A security control is not delivering the expected protection. Which approach fits continuous improvement of the program?
- ARoot-cause the gap, adjust the control design, and measure whether the protection improves
- BAdd a second control on top of the first, without changing the process around it
- CRemove the control from the program, since a control that does not work is not worth keeping
- DReplace the control with a newer product, without analysing why it failed in practice
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Correct answer: ARoot-causing the gap, adjusting the design and measuring the result is an improvement cycle that fixes the real problem. Replacing or stacking controls without analysis may repeat the failure, and removing the control leaves a risk unaddressed.
Question 4
Which argument is most persuasive to a business leader asking why the security program needs more budget?
- AThe program reduces a quantified business risk
- BCompetitors have more security tools, and the market now expects the same level of protection
- CThe security team is busy and would like more staff to reduce the workload on the current team
- DThe security budget has not changed for three years, so an increase is now overdue
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Correct answer: ALinking the investment to a quantified reduction in business risk gives the leader a justification in business terms. Competitor comparisons, workload and time since the last budget do not show value to the business.
Question 5
Which team should lead the security awareness program so that it changes behaviour in the business?
- AThe IT help desk, which answers password questions when staff contact it for support
- BThe external auditors, who test whether staff are aware of the policy after each audit cycle
- CA single email sent by the CISO once a year, with the policies attached for reference
- DAn awareness team working with business leaders to tailor content to each function's risks
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Correct answer: DAn awareness team working with business leaders to tailor content to each function's risks changes behaviour, because the content matches what people actually do. A help desk, a single annual email and audit testing do not change behaviour in a structured way.
Question 6
The organisation adopts cloud services quickly, and security controls lag behind. Which program activity best closes this gap?
- ADelay cloud adoption until every control is in place, even if the business loses its advantage
- BApply a cloud security standard to each new service before it is approved for business use
- CLet each business unit choose its own cloud provider, without any central security review
- DBan all cloud services except one approved service, with no review process for exceptions
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Correct answer: BApplying a cloud security standard before approval closes the gap as adoption continues. Delaying adoption harms the business, unmanaged choices spread risk, and a single service ban pushes use underground without a review process.
Question 7
Which control best reduces the risk of unauthorised changes to production systems?
- AAn annual review of all production systems, held after the change has already taken effect
- BA change process with approval, testing and rollback
- CA daily summary email that lists all changes, sent after they have been made to production
- DA shared administrator account, so that any engineer can make a fix quickly during an incident
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Correct answer: BA change process with approval, testing and rollback, enforced through access control, prevents unauthorised changes before they reach production. Shared accounts remove accountability, and after-the-fact emails and annual reviews detect changes without preventing them.
Question 8
Which two practices keep an information security program aligned with the business? (Choose two.)
- AIncluding business leaders in planning, so that security priorities reflect business needs
- BReporting only technical metrics to the business, so that executives focus on the detail
- CReviewing the program's objectives once every five years, to keep the program stable
- DImposing security controls without consulting the business units, so that they are applied evenly
- EReviewing the program's objectives after major business changes, such as a merger or new markets
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Correct answer: A, EIncluding business leaders in planning and reviewing objectives after major changes keep the program aligned with what the business needs. Technical-only reporting, infrequent reviews and imposing controls without consultation all weaken alignment.
Information Security Risk Management (8 questions)
Question 9
Which role should own the decision to accept a residual risk for a business process?
- AThe information security manager, who runs the program that addresses the risk
- BThe external auditor, who reviews the risk after the decision has already been made
- CThe business process owner, who is accountable for the outcomes and the impact of the risk
- DThe IT help desk, which handles the support requests from users who are affected
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Correct answer: CThe business process owner is accountable for the outcomes and bears the impact of the residual risk, so the decision belongs to them, with the security manager advising. Auditors review after the fact, and the help desk does not own business risk.
Question 10
A high-impact threat has a low likelihood, and the business cannot tolerate its impact. Which risk response is most appropriate?
- AAccept the risk, since the likelihood is low and no further action is needed
- BIgnore the risk until the likelihood increases, so that resources are not spent early
- CMitigate the impact with controls that limit the loss if the threat occurs
- DRemove the business process from the scope of the assessment entirely
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Correct answer: CWhere impact is intolerable, mitigating the impact with controls that limit loss is appropriate even when likelihood is low. Accepting, ignoring or removing the process from scope leave an unacceptable impact in place.
Question 11
Which activity should come first in the risk management process for a new information system?
- ASelect the controls to deploy, so that the system can go live on schedule
- BIdentify the assets, their value, and the threats and vulnerabilities that apply to them
- CWrite the incident response plan, which describes how the team reacts to a breach
- DTest the system's controls, to confirm that they work as designed before launch
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Correct answer: BIdentifying assets, their value, and the threats and vulnerabilities that apply comes first, because controls can only be selected once the risk is understood. Selecting controls, testing them and writing response plans all depend on that analysis.
Question 12
A risk register lists 200 risks with similar scores, and leadership cannot decide which to treat first. Which approach best helps?
- ARank by likelihood and impact against risk appetite
- BTreat the risks in alphabetical order, so that the process is simple to explain
- CAssign every risk to the newest team member, so that each one gets a fresh review
- DDelete all risks with a score below the average, so that the list is shorter
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Correct answer: ARanking by likelihood and impact against risk appetite gives a defensible order that reflects the organisation's tolerance. Alphabetical order and random assignment ignore risk, and deleting below-average risks removes them without analysis.
Question 13
Which metric is most useful for communicating information security risk to executives?
- AThe number of antivirus signature updates applied each day across all endpoints
- BThe total number of log events collected by the security information system each week
- CThe number of firewall rules changed in the last month, grouped by team
- DRisk trend against appetite, shown with the business impact of key exposures
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Correct answer: DRisk trend against appetite, with business impact, translates technical data into decisions executives can act on. Signature updates, rule changes and log volumes describe activity rather than risk.
Question 14
A vendor will host sensitive customer data. Which step should the information security manager take before the contract is signed?
- AAccept the vendor's security certificate without reviewing its scope or its controls
- BAsk the vendor to sign a non-disclosure agreement, and rely on that as the only control
- CAssess the vendor's controls against the organisation's requirements, and document the residual risk
- DBegin transferring the data now, and perform the vendor assessment after the first month
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Correct answer: CAssessing the vendor's controls against requirements before signing identifies gaps while they can still be negotiated. A non-disclosure agreement is not a security control, transferring data before assessment exposes it, and a certificate without a scope review skips the assessment.
Question 15
A backup generator for a data centre is which type of control?
- AA preventive control, because it stops the data centre from losing power
- BA detective control, because it alerts the team when the power supply fails
- CA corrective control, because it restores power after an outage has occurred
- DA compensating control, because it replaces a missing security policy for power
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Correct answer: CA backup generator restores power after an outage has happened, which makes it a corrective control. It does not prevent the outage, detect it, or replace a missing policy.
Question 16
A risk owner has decided to transfer a risk to an insurer. What must the organisation still do?
- AMonitor the residual exposure and the insurer's terms, since the business still has the impact
- BNothing further, since the insurer now owns the risk and the business has no remaining exposure
- CRemove the risk from the register, since insurance removes the obligation to track it at all
- DRequire the insurer to implement the controls on the organisation's internal systems directly
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Correct answer: ATransferring risk by insurance does not remove the organisation's responsibility to monitor residual exposure and the terms of the coverage. Removing the risk from the register or expecting the insurer to run internal controls is incorrect.
Information Security Governance (7 questions)
Question 17
The board asks how the information security strategy supports business objectives. Which artefact should the CISO present first?
- AThe vulnerability count from the latest scan, sorted by severity
- BA list of security tools bought last year, with their licence costs
- CA plan for the next penetration test, with the names of the testers
- DStrategy mapped to business goals, with progress metrics
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Correct answer: DA strategy mapped to business goals, with progress metrics, answers the board's question about alignment. A tool list, a test plan and a vulnerability count describe activity and do not show how security supports business objectives.
Question 18
A new regulation requires the organisation to demonstrate accountability for personal data. Which governance element most directly satisfies this?
- AA RACI matrix for information security activities across the organisation
- BA quarterly training schedule that covers the regulation for all employees
- CA named owner for each data processing activity, with accountability recorded in policy
- DA list of data storage locations, updated each time a new system is added
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Correct answer: CA named owner for each processing activity, recorded in policy, shows who is answerable for the data. A RACI matrix is broader, training shows awareness rather than accountability, and a storage list documents location rather than ownership.
Question 19
Senior management has approved a security policy, but several business units are not following it. What should the information security manager do first?
- AIssue a disciplinary notice to each business unit that is not following the policy
- BAssess the gap between the policy and practice, and the reasons for non-compliance
- CRewrite the policy so that it matches current practice, to remove the gap
- DBlock all activity from the business units that are not complying with the policy
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Correct answer: BAssessing the gap and its causes shows whether the problem is awareness, resources or an unrealistic policy, which decides the right response. Notices, rewriting and blocking each act before the cause is known.
Question 20
Which element best keeps information security governance aligned with business strategy over time?
- AA one-time board approval of the security strategy, which is then kept unchanged
- BA fixed five-year security budget, with no reviews until the budget period ends
- CA policy that bans any change to security controls once they have been implemented
- DPeriodic strategy reviews with business leaders, using defined metrics and trigger points
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Correct answer: DPeriodic reviews with business leaders, using defined metrics and trigger points, keep governance aligned as the business changes. A one-time approval, a fixed budget and a ban on change let the strategy drift from the business.
Question 21
A business unit requests an exception to a security standard for a legacy application that cannot be upgraded. What should be required?
- AA documented risk acceptance with compensating controls and a review date
- BApproval of the exception without review, since the application is critical to the business
- CAn exemption that stays in place until the application is retired, with no periodic review
- DA rejection of the request, with no discussion of alternatives or compensating controls
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Correct answer: AA documented risk acceptance with compensating controls, a review date and the owner's sign-off makes the exception visible, justified and time-limited. Approving without review, exempting permanently and rejecting without discussion each fail to manage the risk properly.
Question 22
Which two elements are essential for information security governance to be effective? (Choose two.)
- AClear roles and accountability for security decisions at the executive and business levels
- BA policy that is updated only when an audit finds a problem, so that it stays stable
- CBoard-level reporting of security performance against business objectives and risk appetite
- DA rule that every security decision must be made by the IT department, to keep it consistent
- EA security budget that is set once and never reviewed against the risk profile
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Correct answer: A, CClear accountability and board-level reporting against business objectives are the core of effective governance. Updating policy only after audits, centralising every decision in IT and a fixed budget each weaken governance.
Question 23
Which document sets the authority and purpose of the information security program?
- AThe security awareness calendar, which lists the training sessions for the year
- BThe vulnerability scan report, which lists the findings from the latest scan
- CThe information security charter or policy, approved by the board
- DThe firewall rule base, which lists the permitted and denied traffic flows
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Correct answer: CAn information security charter or policy approved by the board establishes the program's authority, purpose and scope. A training calendar, a scan report and a rule base are operational records and do not establish authority.
Incident Management (7 questions)
Question 24
A security incident is detected at 2 AM, and the team does not yet know its scope. What should the response team do first?
- ANotify all customers immediately, so that they can protect themselves from the attack
- BContain the incident by isolating the affected systems, after preserving the evidence needed
- CReimage every system in the company, so that any malware is removed before it spreads
- DWait until business hours, so that managers can approve each step before the team acts
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Correct answer: BContainment limits the damage, and preserving evidence supports the investigation and any legal or regulatory need. Notifying customers, reimaging everything and waiting for approval each act before the scope is known, and they can destroy evidence or delay the response.
Question 25
Which element is the most important part of an incident response plan?
- AA long policy document, kept in the legal department and rarely updated
- BA printed copy of the network diagram, kept in a locked cabinet in the server room
- CA catalogue of every security tool purchased, with the vendor contacts for each tool
- DClear roles, escalation paths and decision authority, which the team has rehearsed
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Correct answer: DRoles, escalation paths and decision authority, rehearsed by the team, determine whether an incident is handled quickly and correctly. Policy text, tool catalogues and diagrams support the response but do not direct it.
Question 26
What is the purpose of a post-incident review?
- ATo find the root cause and improve controls and the response
- BTo close the incident record quickly, so that the team can return to normal work
- CTo identify the person who caused the incident, so that they can be disciplined
- DTo prepare a press statement that describes how well the team responded to the event
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Correct answer: AA post-incident review examines root cause and improves controls, processes and the response, which prevents recurrence. Blaming individuals discourages reporting, quick closure skips learning, and press statements serve communications rather than improvement.
Question 27
Which two actions help an organisation recover from a security incident and prevent a repeat? (Choose two.)
- ARestore infected system images directly, to save time during the recovery effort
- BClose the incident as soon as the service is back, without a review of the root cause
- CRestore systems from verified clean backups, after the attacker's access has been removed
- DTrack the lessons learned into the program's improvement plan, with owners and dates
- EWithhold the root cause from all stakeholders, so that the attack method is not published
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Correct answer: C, DRestoring from verified clean backups after removing access avoids reinfection, and tracking lessons learned with owners and dates prevents repeats. Restoring infected images, closing without root cause analysis and withholding the cause from stakeholders all raise the risk of recurrence.
Question 28
A forensic investigation must be legally defensible. Which practice is essential?
- AWorking directly on the original evidence, so that the investigators see the true state
- BEditing the logs to remove noise, so that the relevant entries are easier to read
- CMaintaining chain of custody and working from verified copies of the evidence
- DDestroying the evidence once the incident has been closed, to protect the organisation
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Correct answer: CChain of custody and work on verified copies show that the evidence is authentic and unaltered, which is what makes the investigation defensible. Working on originals, editing logs and destroying evidence each undermine admissibility.
Question 29
A suspected breach involves personal data. Which function should be notified first, according to the incident response plan?
- AThe privacy or legal function, together with the incident response lead
- BAll employees, by a broadcast email that describes the incident in full detail
- CThe marketing team, which manages customer communications for the organisation
- DThe vendor of the affected application only, so that it can start its own analysis
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Correct answer: AThe privacy or legal function and the incident response lead are the people the plan typically requires to be notified first, because they decide the obligations and the next steps. Marketing, all staff and a single vendor are not the first notification.
Question 30
Which is a sign of an effective incident response capability?
- AIncidents are never reported, so the team appears to be performing well on paper
- BEvery incident is closed on the day it was reported, regardless of its cause or impact
- CThe response team works without a plan, so that it can adapt to each situation as it arises
- DDetection and containment times are measured and improve over time
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Correct answer: DMeasuring detection and containment times and seeing them improve shows that capability is growing. Unreported incidents, same-day closure regardless of cause and unplanned response are signs of weakness.