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Free CMMC Certified Professional (CCP) practice test: 30 questions with answers

30 original questions for CMMC Certified Professional (CCP), drawn from every topic area. Answer each one to see whether you got it right and why. No sign-up.

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CMMC Certified Professional (CCP) exam guide: topics, cost and format

All 30 CMMC Certified Professional (CCP) questions with answers

The same questions as the test above, grouped by exam topic. Open any question to see the answer and explanation.

CMMC Ecosystem (5 questions)

  1. Question 1

    A defense contractor asks which organization in the CMMC ecosystem is authorized to accredit third-party assessment organizations and oversee the credentialing of individual assessors. Which organization should the contractor name?

    1. ADefense Contract Management Agency, which conducts routine certification assessments for every contractor
    2. BThe Cyber AB, the accreditation body that authorizes C3PAOs and oversees individual credentialing
    3. CThe contractor's own senior official, who appoints assessors and issues the certification
    4. DNational Institute of Standards and Technology, which trains and credentials every individual assessor
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: B

    The Cyber AB accredits C3PAOs and oversees the training and credentialing of individual assessors. DCMA does not accredit organizations, the contractor's senior official affirms compliance rather than certifying it, and NIST publishes standards rather than credentialing assessors.

  2. Question 2

    Which of the following are roles or organizations in the CMMC ecosystem that a contractor may deal with during certification? (Choose three.)

    1. AA Certified Third-Party Assessment Organization (C3PAO) that conducts Level 2 certification assessments
    2. BA Registered Provider Organization (RPO) that offers consulting and advisory services
    3. CThe contracting office's internal accounts payable team that processes vendor invoices
    4. DThe Cyber AB, which accredits assessment organizations and credentials individual practitioners
    5. EA commercial printing company that produces the contractor's policy binders
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: A, B, D

    C3PAOs conduct certification assessments, RPOs provide advice without performing the assessment for the same client, and the Cyber AB accredits and credentials. Accounts payable and a printing vendor are not defined CMMC ecosystem roles.

  3. Question 3

    A defense contractor stores CUI in a commercial cloud platform operated by a cloud service provider. Which requirement applies to that provider?

    1. AThe provider must meet the FedRAMP Moderate baseline or an equivalent standard for CUI handling
    2. BThe provider only needs a signed service agreement and no federal security baseline at all
    3. CThe provider is exempt because the contractor, not the provider, owns the data stored in the platform
    4. DThe provider needs to hold a Level 3 certification but no federal cloud security baseline
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: A

    DFARS 252.204-7012 requires cloud service providers that store CUI for a contractor to meet the FedRAMP Moderate baseline or an equivalent standard. The other options invent a certification requirement, remove any requirement, or wrongly exempt the provider because of data ownership.

  4. Question 4

    In the CMMC ecosystem, which role describes an organization that provides advisory and consulting help to a contractor preparing for certification, but that is restricted from performing the formal assessment for that same contractor?

    1. AOrganization Seeking Certification
    2. BRegistered Provider Organization
    3. CCertified Third-Party Assessment Organization
    4. DDefense Industrial Base Cybersecurity Assessment Center
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: B

    A Registered Provider Organization gives advice and consulting, and it cannot act as the assessor for the same client. An Organization Seeking Certification is the contractor being assessed, a C3PAO performs the formal assessment, and DIBCAC is a government body rather than a consulting provider.

  5. Question 5

    A contractor pursuing Level 3 wants to know which organization performs the government-led assessment. Which organization should the contractor identify?

    1. AThe Cyber AB's volunteer assessors, drawn from accredited member firms across the country and working under an agreement with the contractor
    2. BThe Defense Contract Management Agency's Defense Industrial Base Cybersecurity Assessment Center (DIBCAC)
    3. CAn internal audit department of the contractor, reporting to its own board of directors
    4. DThe C3PAO chosen by the prime contractor to assess its subcontractors for the supply chain
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: B

    DCMA's DIBCAC conducts the government-led assessments for Level 3. The Cyber AB accredits and credentials rather than assessing, an internal audit group is not a government-led assessor, and a C3PAO is a third-party assessor rather than a government body.

CMMC-AB Code of Professional Conduct (Ethics) (5 questions)

  1. Question 6

    A CCP helped a contractor write its System Security Plan and documented controls during a consulting engagement. Later, the CCP is asked to join the assessment team for the same contractor. What should the CCP do?

    1. AAccept the assignment, since the earlier work covered a different scope than the one being assessed now
    2. BAccept the assignment only after the contractor has already received its certification decision
    3. CAccept the assignment but keep the earlier consulting relationship out of the assessment report
    4. DDisclose the prior consulting relationship and decline the assessment role to preserve objectivity
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: D

    An assessor who helped build the controls has a conflict of interest and cannot judge them objectively, so the relationship must be disclosed and the assessment role declined. Accepting and hiding the relationship, or waiting until after the decision, does not remove the conflict.

  2. Question 7

    A credentialed CMMC professional is describing their qualifications and their client's certification status in proposals and marketing. Which behavior reflects the ethical expectation?

    1. AUse a certification logo in marketing without first confirming that the credential is current
    2. BPromise the client a passing result before the assessment begins to win the work
    3. CDescribe credentials in broad terms that suggest a higher level than the one actually held
    4. DDescribe credentials and status accurately, never implying a status that has not been granted
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: D

    Honest and accurate representation of credentials and certification status is a core professional conduct expectation. Using a logo without checking currency, promising results, or implying a higher level all misrepresent the professional's standing.

  3. Question 8

    During an assessment, an assessor learns that the organization's leadership expects the report to show a higher result than the collected evidence supports. What should the assessor do?

    1. AAdjust the findings to match the client's expectations in order to protect the business relationship
    2. BAsk a colleague who has no knowledge of the case to sign off on the findings instead of reviewing them
    3. CReport findings based only on the evidence collected and escalate the pressure through proper channels
    4. DRemove the disputed findings from the report and deliver only the favorable results
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: C

    Assessment findings must rest on objective evidence, and pressure to change them is an integrity issue that should be escalated through the proper channels. Changing, hiding, or outsourcing the sign-off of findings would all compromise the assessment.

  4. Question 9

    Which statement about handling client information during a CMMC engagement is most accurate?

    1. AClient information gathered in an assessment must be protected and shared only as permitted
    2. BAssessment evidence may be posted to a public forum once the certification decision is announced
    3. CClient artifacts may be kept on a personal device after the engagement for future reference
    4. DAssessors may discuss a client's security gaps with competitors if the client's name is removed
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: A

    Client information gathered during an engagement must be protected and shared only as the rules and the engagement allow. Posting evidence publicly, keeping artifacts on personal devices, or discussing a client's gaps with competitors all breach confidentiality.

  5. Question 10

    A prospective client asks a consultant to guarantee that its organization will achieve a specific CMMC level after a consulting engagement. How should the consultant respond?

    1. AGuarantee certification in writing, since the consultant's expertise makes the outcome predictable and the client is paying for it
    2. BExplain that certification depends on the evidence and the independent assessment, so no outcome is promised
    3. CAgree to the guarantee but limit it to the consulting deliverables while leaving the assessment itself out of the written terms
    4. DPromise certification only if the client agrees to a higher consulting fee for the engagement and signs the contract early
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: B

    Certification outcomes depend on the evidence and on an independent assessment, so ethical consultants do not guarantee a result. The other responses either promise an outcome or tie a promise to fees or to hidden contract terms.

CMMC Governance and Source Documents (5 questions)

  1. Question 11

    A compliance officer is drafting a policy and needs the federal rule that establishes the CMMC Program itself. Which citation should the officer reference?

    1. A32 CFR Part 2002
    2. B29 CFR Part 1910
    3. C32 CFR Part 170
    4. D40 CFR Part 170
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: C

    32 CFR Part 170 is the CMMC Program rule. 32 CFR Part 2002 governs the CUI program rather than CMMC certification, and the other two citations belong to unrelated regulatory areas.

  2. Question 12

    A contracting officer adds a DFARS clause to a solicitation that requires contractors to hold a specified CMMC level before award. Which clause does this describe?

    1. ADFARS 252.204-7012 (safeguarding covered defense information)
    2. BDFARS 252.204-7021 (CMMC requirement clause)
    3. CFAR 52.203-13 (contractor code of business ethics)
    4. DFAR 52.204-21 (basic safeguarding of covered information systems)
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: B

    DFARS 252.204-7021 is the clause that carries the CMMC level requirement into contracts. DFARS 252.204-7012 covers safeguarding and incident reporting, FAR 52.204-21 sets basic safeguarding requirements, and FAR 52.203-13 addresses ethics, so none of those is the CMMC requirement clause.

  3. Question 13

    Which publications form the technical basis for the Level 2 practices and the way assessors check them?

    1. ANIST SP 800-53 control catalog, which is written for federal information systems and agencies
    2. BISO/IEC 27001 with its Statement of Applicability and internal audit schedule
    3. CNIST SP 800-171 with the assessment procedures in NIST SP 800-171A
    4. DFIPS 199 security categorization process applied to each system boundary in scope
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: C

    Level 2 practices are drawn from NIST SP 800-171, and NIST SP 800-171A provides the assessment procedures. NIST SP 800-53 is a federal control catalog, ISO/IEC 27001 is a separate management standard, and FIPS 199 is a categorization standard, so none of them is the Level 2 basis.

  4. Question 14

    A contracts manager is comparing the CMMC program rule with the DFARS acquisition rule. Which statement is most accurate?

    1. ABoth rules apply only to contracts that were already awarded before the CMMC effective date and not to later solicitations
    2. BThe acquisition rule replaces the program rule once contracts are awarded to organizations that already hold a certification
    3. CThe program rule applies only to prime contractors, while the acquisition rule is written to cover subcontractors and suppliers in the chain
    4. DThe program rule establishes the certification framework, while the acquisition rule sets the requirement in contracts
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: D

    The program rule in 32 CFR Part 170 sets up the certification framework, while the DFARS acquisition rule puts the requirement into contracts. The other statements wrongly limit the reach of the rules to primes, to past awards, or to already-certified companies.

  5. Question 15

    Which of the following are authoritative source documents that a practitioner would consult when interpreting Level 2 requirements? (Choose three.)

    1. ACMMC Assessment Guide for Level 2
    2. BNIST SP 800-171 Revision 2 requirement text
    3. CThe contractor's internal marketing brochure
    4. DNIST SP 800-172 enhanced requirements for Level 3
    5. ECMMC Model Overview document
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: A, B, E

    The CMMC Assessment Guide for Level 2, the NIST SP 800-171 Revision 2 requirement text, and the CMMC Model Overview are authoritative sources for Level 2 interpretation. NIST SP 800-172 applies to Level 3, and a marketing brochure is not an authoritative source.

CMMC Model Construct and Implementation Evaluation (5 questions)

  1. Question 16

    Which CMMC level applies to organizations that handle only Federal Contract Information (FCI)?

    1. ALevel 2 (Advanced), which protects CUI with practices aligned to NIST SP 800-171
    2. BLevel 3 (Expert), which protects CUI against advanced persistent threats
    3. CLevel 1 (Foundational), which protects FCI with a basic set of practices
    4. DLevel 0 (Basic), which is a self-declared tier with no formal practices
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: C

    Level 1 (Foundational) protects FCI with a basic set of practices and an annual self-assessment. Level 2 and Level 3 protect CUI, and the CMMC model has no formal Level 0.

  2. Question 17

    A defense contractor handles CUI under a prioritized acquisition. Which assessment approach applies to its Level 2 certification?

    1. AThird-party assessment by a C3PAO
    2. BSelf-assessment with no external review
    3. CGovernment-led assessment by DCMA DIBCAC
    4. DAnnual self-attestation by the IT manager without senior official sign-off
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: A

    Level 2 requires a C3PAO assessment for prioritized acquisitions, while self-assessment applies to certain non-prioritized contracts. Government-led assessment is the Level 3 route, and an IT manager's attestation without senior official sign-off is not a valid affirmation.

  3. Question 18

    What is the main difference in assessor type between Level 2 and Level 3?

    1. ALevel 2 is assessed by the government directly, while Level 3 can always be self-assessed by the organization
    2. BLevel 2 may use a C3PAO for certain contracts, while Level 3 is assessed by the government
    3. CBoth levels are always assessed by the same internal audit group that reports to the contractor's own board
    4. DLevel 3 uses volunteer staff from the Cyber AB, while Level 2 is assessed by government auditors from DIBCAC
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: B

    Level 2 certification may use a C3PAO depending on the contract type, while Level 3 is a government-led assessment. The other options reverse the assessor roles or invent assessors such as internal audit groups and Cyber AB volunteer staff.

  4. Question 19

    Which statements about the CMMC levels are accurate? (Choose two.)

    1. ALevel 1 requires an annual self-assessment and an affirmation by a senior official
    2. BLevel 3 uses the same assessment method as Level 1 for each practice
    3. CLevel 2 practices are aligned to NIST SP 800-171
    4. DCMMC 2.0 retains the five maturity levels that were defined in CMMC 1.0
    5. ELevel 1 must be assessed by a DIBCAC auditor before any contract award
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: A, C

    Level 1 uses an annual self-assessment with senior official affirmation, and Level 2 practices are aligned to NIST SP 800-171. Level 3 is government-assessed rather than matching Level 1, CMMC 2.0 has three levels rather than five, and Level 1 is self-assessed rather than assessed by DIBCAC.

  5. Question 20

    Which of the following is a security requirement family in NIST SP 800-171 Revision 2?

    1. ABusiness Continuity Planning
    2. BSupply Chain Risk Management
    3. CAccess Control
    4. DQuantum Key Management
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: C

    Access Control is one of the requirement families in NIST SP 800-171 Revision 2. Business continuity planning is covered by other NIST publications, supply chain risk management appears only in a later revision, and quantum key management is not a family in that publication.

CMMC Assessment Process (CAP) (5 questions)

  1. Question 21

    An assessment team needs to decide whether a Level 2 practice is actually implemented. Which set of assessment methods, defined in NIST SP 800-171A, should the team use to collect evidence?

    1. AAudit the policy, certify the operations, and recertify each year
    2. BScan the network, patch the findings, and report the results
    3. CPlan the controls, design the architecture, and deploy the tools
    4. DExamine, interview, and test
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: D

    NIST SP 800-171A defines examine, interview, and test as the assessment methods for gathering evidence. The other options describe operational or management activities performed on the system, not assessment methods.

  2. Question 22

    A contractor is preparing for a Level 2 assessment and needs one document that describes the assessed system boundary and explains how each practice is met. Which document should it prepare?

    1. AIncident Response Plan listing escalation contacts, reporting steps, and recovery roles
    2. BBusiness Continuity Plan covering backup sites and recovery of business operations
    3. CSystem Security Plan describing the boundary and how each practice is met
    4. DAcceptable Use Policy that sets rules for how employees may use company devices
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: C

    A System Security Plan documents the system boundary and how each practice is implemented, which is why assessors review it first. The incident response plan, business continuity plan, and acceptable use policy each cover important topics but not the full scope and implementation record.

  3. Question 23

    During a Level 2 assessment, an OSC cannot produce any evidence that a practice is implemented, and the assessor cannot verify it through examination, interview, or testing. How is the practice recorded?

    1. ANOT MET, because sufficient objective evidence to verify the practice was not provided
    2. BMET with a note, because interviews alone can confirm the practice is implemented
    3. CMET, because policy documents that describe the control are usually enough to establish that it works
    4. DWaived by the Lead Assessor, because the senior official agreed to accept the risk
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: A

    Without sufficient objective evidence, the practice is recorded as NOT MET, and it may go on a POA&M only where the Level 2 rules allow. Accepting interviews alone, assuming policy documents prove operation, or waiving the practice are not valid ways to record a finding.

  4. Question 24

    In a Level 2 conditional outcome, what is the purpose of the Plan of Action and Milestones (POA&M)?

    1. AIt lists the assessor's personal training schedule and continuing education hours for the next credential renewal cycle
    2. BIt identifies which employees will face disciplinary action for each practice that the organization failed to implement
    3. CIt replaces the System Security Plan as the official record of the assessed scope and controls
    4. DIt documents remediation of specific unmet practices within a defined time frame, subject to program limits
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: D

    A POA&M records how specific unmet practices will be remediated within a defined time frame, subject to program limits on what may be placed on it. It is not a training record, a disciplinary list, or a replacement for the System Security Plan.

  5. Question 25

    Which statement about assessment evidence is most accurate?

    1. AScreenshots taken months before the assessment prove the current configuration of a system
    2. BVerbal assurances from managers are sufficient evidence on their own when they are senior
    3. CEvidence should be objective and traceable to the practice it supports
    4. DA policy document never needs to be reviewed for accuracy once it has been approved
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: C

    Assessment evidence must be objective, current, and traceable to the practice it supports. Stale screenshots, verbal assurances alone, and unreviewed policies do not establish that a practice is implemented.

Scoping (5 questions)

  1. Question 26

    A contractor uses a firewall that filters traffic into the enclave holding CUI, but the firewall never stores CUI itself. How should the firewall be classified in scoping?

    1. ASecurity Protection Asset, because it provides security functions for the CUI assets it guards
    2. BSpecialized Asset, because the device is a piece of equipment that is not a general-purpose computer
    3. CCUI Asset, because all devices next to CUI systems must store controlled information
    4. DOut-of-scope asset, because it never stores or processes CUI in its daily operations
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: A

    A firewall that filters traffic into a CUI enclave provides security functions for CUI assets, which makes it a Security Protection Asset. The out-of-scope option is wrong because such a device supports the protection of CUI assets, and the other categories do not describe a security device.

  2. Question 27

    Which asset category is used for systems that are in scope because they process, store, or transmit CUI?

    1. ACUI Asset, the category for systems that handle controlled information directly
    2. BContractor Risk Managed Asset, which may be handled differently from core assets
    3. CSpecialized Asset, such as operational technology or Internet of Things devices
    4. DOut-of-scope Asset, such as a public website that never handles controlled data
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: A

    CUI Assets are the in-scope category for systems that handle controlled information directly. Contractor Risk Managed Assets, Specialized Assets, and Out-of-scope Assets are separate categories with different treatment in the scoping guidance.

  3. Question 28

    Which of the following are asset categories defined in CMMC scoping guidance? (Choose three.)

    1. ACUI Assets
    2. BSecurity Protection Assets
    3. CPublic Relations Assets
    4. DContractor Risk Managed Assets
    5. EHardware Warranty Assets
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: A, B, D

    CUI Assets, Security Protection Assets, and Contractor Risk Managed Assets are scoping categories in the CMMC guidance. Public Relations Assets and Hardware Warranty Assets are not defined categories.

  4. Question 29

    A company wants to reduce how many systems must meet Level 2 practices. Which approach is most appropriate?

    1. ARename every CUI document with a generic title so that the scope review no longer identifies the files as controlled
    2. BMove the CUI to an out-of-scope laptop that employees use at home and that no company policy covers
    3. CDelete the System Security Plan so the scope is never documented and cannot be reviewed by assessors
    4. DBuild a segmented enclave that holds CUI and limit access to the systems inside it
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: D

    A segmented enclave limits which systems process or store CUI, which reduces the scope that must meet the practices. Renaming files, moving CUI to unmanaged devices, or deleting the security plan are not valid scoping methods and would violate the requirements.

  5. Question 30

    A manufacturing plant has networked sensors and controllers on the same segment as systems that process CUI. Which asset category do the sensors and controllers most likely fall under?

    1. ASpecialized Asset, such as operational technology or Internet of Things devices
    2. BFacilities Asset, because the sensors belong to the plant's building-management system
    3. CCUI Asset, because any device on a segment that carries CUI must hold controlled data
    4. DOut-of-scope asset, because the sensors never handle any form of controlled data at all
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: A

    Operational technology and Internet of Things devices are typical Specialized Assets in the scoping guidance, and they are handled differently from general computing assets. A shared network segment does not make a device a CUI Asset, and the other options name categories that do not describe these devices.