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Free Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) practice test: 30 questions with answers

30 original questions for Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC), drawn from every topic area. Answer each one to see whether you got it right and why. No sign-up.

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Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) exam guide: topics, cost and format

All 30 Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) questions with answers

The same questions as the test above, grouped by exam topic. Open any question to see the answer and explanation.

Risk Response and Reporting (8 questions)

  1. Question 1

    A control owner says that a payment reconciliation control runs daily, but evidence shows it was skipped for three weeks. What should the risk practitioner do first?

    1. ARemove the control from the register because it has proven unreliable
    2. BTest the control design and operating effectiveness to establish the extent of the gap
    3. CApprove a one-year risk exception so the team can continue normally
    4. DReplace the control with an automated tool before any further testing
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: B

    Before deciding on a response, the practitioner needs to know how far the failure reaches, which requires testing the control's design and how it operated over the period. Removing the control, granting a long exception, or replacing it all act before the facts are established.

  2. Question 2

    Which characteristic makes a key risk indicator (KRI) most useful for early warning?

    1. AIt moves before a loss occurs and has a threshold tied to risk appetite
    2. BIt reports a lagging figure taken from the most recent annual audit
    3. CIt is calculated only after the related incident has been formally closed
    4. DIt is reported only to the external regulator and not to management
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: A

    An effective KRI is a leading signal whose threshold is set against appetite, so a breach prompts action before a loss happens. Lagging figures and post-incident measures describe what already occurred, and a regulator-only indicator gives management nothing to act on.

  3. Question 3

    Which two responses are valid options for a risk that currently exceeds appetite? (Choose two.)

    1. AMitigate the risk by strengthening controls until it falls within appetite
    2. BAccept the risk without a named owner so that the business can keep moving
    3. CTransfer part of the financial exposure through a cyber insurance policy
    4. DLeave the risk unchanged until the next scheduled audit cycle takes place
    5. EDelete the risk entry from the register so that it no longer appears in reports
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: A, C

    Risk response options include mitigating the risk by improving controls and transferring part of its impact, such as through insurance, both of which can bring exposure back within appetite. Accepting without an owner, waiting for an audit, or deleting the entry each hide the risk rather than responding to it.

  4. Question 4

    A third-party payroll provider reports a data breach. Which action best reflects sound vendor risk management?

    1. AReview the provider's assessment and contract terms, then confirm the affected data
    2. BStop all payroll processing and move the payroll function fully in-house permanently
    3. CWait for the provider's annual certification renewal before taking further action
    4. DAsk the provider to delete your organization's own system logs as a precaution
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: A

    A breach at a provider is handled through the provider's obligations: the practitioner checks the assessment and contract terms, then establishes what data was exposed and what the organization must do. Moving in-house is a strategic decision that may not be warranted, waiting on a renewal is too slow, and deleting your own logs destroys the evidence needed to investigate.

  5. Question 5

    A control is well designed on paper, but testing shows that staff do not perform it as the procedure describes. Which term describes this finding?

    1. AOperating deficiency
    2. BDesign deficiency
    3. CInherent gap
    4. DScope exclusion
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: A

    An operating deficiency means a control whose design is adequate is not performing as intended in practice. A design deficiency would mean the control could not meet its objective even if it were performed correctly, while inherent gap and scope exclusion describe other concepts.

  6. Question 6

    A risk action plan has missed its due date twice. Which response is most appropriate?

    1. ALeave the action plan open without escalation until the team has more capacity
    2. BClose the issue and open a new one so that the due date resets
    3. CEscalate to the accountable owner and governance forum with a revised date
    4. DLower the risk rating so that the missed date no longer matters for reporting
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: C

    Repeated slippage should be escalated to the accountable owner and governance forum, with a realistic revised date and an explanation of the exposure that the delay creates. Leaving it open, resetting it by reopening, or lowering the rating each conceal a control weakness rather than managing it.

  7. Question 7

    Which element belongs in a risk report prepared for senior management?

    1. ATrends in the risk profile measured against appetite, with exposure and action status
    2. BA list of every individual failed scan result from the past quarter
    3. CThe full text of every policy and standard the organization has approved
    4. DRaw security information and event management (SIEM) log counts for the past year
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: A

    Senior management needs a view of the risk profile against appetite, the exposure it represents, and whether actions are progressing. Scan results, full policy text, and raw log counts are operational detail that would obscure the decision the report is meant to support.

  8. Question 8

    A control is designed to review privileged access every quarter. Testing shows the review took place, but reviewers did not remove accounts that were no longer needed. What is the best description of the issue?

    1. AA design deficiency, because the review frequency is too low to be useful at all
    2. BAn inherent risk that exists regardless of whether the control is in place or not
    3. CA residual risk that the risk committee has already formally accepted in its minutes
    4. DAn operating deficiency, because the review did not perform its intended function in practice
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: D

    The control was designed to remove unneeded access and was carried out, but it did not achieve its purpose, which is an operating deficiency. A design problem would mean the quarterly review could not work even if performed well, and the other options describe risk levels rather than control performance.

Governance (8 questions)

  1. Question 9

    An enterprise risk committee notices that business units approve exceptions to security standards without anyone formally owning the residual risk. Which governance element is most directly missing?

    1. AA recurring awareness training program for business unit managers
    2. BNamed owners with documented authority to accept residual risk
    3. CA vulnerability scanning schedule covering every internet-facing application
    4. DA technology roadmap that retires unsupported platforms on a fixed cycle
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: B

    Risk ownership assigns accountability and the documented authority to accept residual risk within the approved appetite. Training and scanning are useful controls, but neither establishes who may accept an exception. The roadmap addresses platform lifecycle rather than acceptance authority.

  2. Question 10

    Which statement best distinguishes risk appetite from risk tolerance?

    1. AAppetite is expressed only as a numeric loss figure, while tolerance is always a qualitative label
    2. BTolerance is the broad amount of risk pursued to reach objectives, while appetite is the acceptable variation around a specific objective
    3. CAppetite is the broad amount of risk pursued to reach objectives, while tolerance is the acceptable variation around a specific objective
    4. DTolerance replaces the risk register, while appetite replaces the control catalogue
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: C

    Risk appetite states how much risk the enterprise is prepared to pursue in general, and risk tolerance sets the boundary of acceptable deviation for a particular objective. The second option swaps the two terms, and the other options describe artifacts or formats that are not defined by these terms.

  3. Question 11

    In the three lines model, which function provides independent assurance over the effectiveness of risk management and internal controls?

    1. AThe process owners who operate the controls day to day
    2. BInternal audit, reporting functionally to the audit committee
    3. CThe risk management function that sets the risk framework and policy
    4. DThe IT help desk that executes configuration changes on request
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: B

    Internal audit is the third line and reports to the audit committee, which gives it the independence needed to assess whether controls work. The first line operates the controls and the second line sets the framework, so both are part of management and cannot provide that independent view.

  4. Question 12

    A policy states that all cloud storage must be encrypted, but the supporting standard does not define approved algorithms or key lengths. Which action best closes this gap?

    1. ADelete the policy so that teams follow the default settings of each cloud provider
    2. BCreate a separate policy for each cloud storage vendor the organization uses
    3. CRaise the policy to board level so that it is approved by the chief executive
    4. DAdd approved algorithms and minimum key lengths to the supporting standard
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: D

    A policy sets the principle while a standard defines measurable requirements, so the missing algorithms and key lengths belong in the standard. Vendor-specific policies duplicate effort and drift apart, and a higher approval level does not add the detail that is missing.

  5. Question 13

    Which two elements connect enterprise risk management to individual business decisions? (Choose two.)

    1. AAd hoc risk discussions that take place only after an incident has occurred
    2. BDocumented risk appetite and tolerance statements approved by senior leadership
    3. CA single team that owns all technology purchasing decisions for the enterprise
    4. DQuarterly penetration test results that are shared only with the security team
    5. ENamed risk ownership assigned to accountable business leaders for each significant risk
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: B, E

    Approved appetite statements give decision makers a reference point, and named ownership makes the leader who benefits from a business decision also answerable for its risk. Reactive discussions after incidents and sharing test results with one team do not connect risk to decisions, and centralising purchasing is an organizational choice rather than a governance link.

  6. Question 14

    An organization has not yet inventoried its information assets for risk purposes. What is the best first step?

    1. ADeploy a data loss prevention platform across all email and file share systems
    2. BStart encrypting every production database that holds customer records
    3. CRun a phishing simulation for all staff to measure current awareness
    4. DCreate a register of information assets with owners, classification, and location
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: D

    An organization cannot assess, protect, or assign ownership for assets it has not identified, so a register with owners and classifications is the foundation. Data loss prevention and encryption are valuable later, but both assume the organization already knows what it holds and how sensitive it is.

  7. Question 15

    Which observation is the strongest evidence that an organization's risk culture is healthy?

    1. AStaff escalate control failures and near misses without fear of blame
    2. BThe risk policy is reviewed on a strict twelve-month cycle without exceptions
    3. CThe number of entries in the risk register has risen steadily for three years
    4. DThe organization reported zero audit findings in the past year
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: A

    A healthy risk culture shows up in people raising problems early, including near misses, without being punished for them. A clean audit record or a rising register count can each reflect reporting gaps or changing scope rather than good behaviour, and a fixed review cycle measures the calendar rather than the culture.

  8. Question 16

    A board asks why the risk function reports to the chief risk officer rather than to the chief information officer. Which principle does this structure best support?

    1. AIndependence of risk oversight from the functions whose decisions it reviews
    2. BFaster approval of technology purchases, which the chief information officer controls directly and can authorize without the usual review steps
    3. CLower salary costs for risk staff, since they sit at a more junior level in the reporting hierarchy of the organization
    4. DUnlimited authority for the risk function to block any project it dislikes, without needing a documented review or rationale
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: A

    Separate reporting lines keep the people who check risk from being managed by the people whose decisions they check. The other options describe speed, cost, or power, none of which is the reason for the structure, and the last one describes an abuse of the role rather than a principle.

Risk Assessment (7 questions)

  1. Question 17

    A risk practitioner is building a scenario for ransomware affecting a claims processing system. Which element should be defined first?

    1. AThe target date of the next internal audit engagement
    2. BThe annual budget that has been approved for security tooling
    3. CThe list of cyber insurance vendors that could quote for the business
    4. DThe threat event, the asset it affects, and the vulnerability it would exploit
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: D

    A risk scenario needs a threat event acting on a specific asset through a specific weakness, because the likelihood and impact estimates depend on those three elements. Budget, insurance vendors, and audit dates may matter later for response decisions, but they do not define the risk itself.

  2. Question 18

    A business impact analysis states that the claims system can tolerate no more than four hours of downtime, but the last recovery test took eleven hours. Which term best describes this comparison?

    1. ARecovery point objective shortfall
    2. BControl design deficiency
    3. CInherent risk rating
    4. DRecovery time objective shortfall
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: D

    The recovery time objective is the maximum tolerable time to restore a service, so a test that takes longer than that limit is a shortfall against it. A recovery point objective concerns how much data may be lost, which the scenario does not mention, while inherent risk and design deficiency describe different concepts.

  3. Question 19

    Which characteristic best describes inherent risk?

    1. AThe residual risk that remains after controls have been applied and tested
    2. BThe risk that the board has accepted in the risk appetite statement
    3. CThe risk level assessed before considering any controls that are in place
    4. DThe risk that is transferred to an insurer through a policy
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: C

    Inherent risk is the exposure estimated without the effect of existing controls, and it is the baseline against which control effectiveness is judged. Residual risk is what remains after controls, while acceptance and transfer are responses that come after the assessment.

  4. Question 20

    A scan reports a critical vulnerability on a server that cannot be reached from the internet and sits behind network segmentation. What is the most appropriate way to record it?

    1. AClose the finding immediately without review because segmentation already exists in the network design
    2. BRemove the server from future scanning so that the finding does not recur
    3. CRecord it with its exposure context, assess the residual risk, and document the decision
    4. DEscalate it as a board-level security incident regardless of its exposure
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: C

    Compensating controls can lower the practical risk of a vulnerability, but the finding still needs a documented assessment and a decision by the owner. Closing it without review or excluding the server from scanning removes the evidence, and escalating every critical finding to the board ignores the context that makes this one lower risk.

  5. Question 21

    Which technique is most suitable for identifying emerging threats that do not yet appear in the organization's own incident history?

    1. AReviewing only the organization's internal incident log for recurring patterns
    2. BReviewing the terms of the organization's vendor contracts for security clauses
    3. CReviewing last year's internal audit findings for the same business units
    4. DAnalyzing external threat intelligence and peer industry reports
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: D

    External threat intelligence and industry reports show threats that other organizations have seen, which is how new risks are identified before they reach your own logs. Internal logs and audit findings only reveal what has already happened to you, and contract review is useful for vendor risk rather than threat identification.

  6. Question 22

    Which advantage does quantitative risk analysis offer over a qualitative heat map when a decision is needed on funding a control?

    1. AIt removes all uncertainty from the estimates, so decisions need no further judgment
    2. BIt makes the risk register unnecessary because the figures replace it
    3. CIt expresses exposure in monetary terms that can be compared with the cost of the control
    4. DIt requires no input from the business owners who carry the impact
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: C

    Expressing loss exposure in money lets the organization compare the annualized loss a control would prevent with what the control costs. Quantitative estimates still carry uncertainty, and they still rely on owner input and a register, so the other options overstate what the method does.

  7. Question 23

    Which two items should be included in a risk register entry for a specific risk? (Choose two.)

    1. AThe named risk owner and the date of the last review
    2. BThe current inherent and residual ratings for the risk
    3. CIndividual performance ratings for each staff member who touches the asset
    4. DA copy of the vendor's marketing brochure for the product involved
    5. EA list of every risk that was closed in the register since it was first created
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: A, B

    A register entry needs an accountable owner with a review date, and the ratings that show the risk before and after controls. Individual performance data, marketing material, and closed-risk history do not describe the risk itself and are not needed to manage it.

Technology and Security (7 questions)

  1. Question 24

    Which three controls help protect data across its lifecycle? (Choose three.)

    1. AClassifying data at creation so that handling rules follow it
    2. BEncrypting data at rest and in transit between systems
    3. CKeeping copies of all data indefinitely in case it is needed later
    4. DEnforcing secure deletion when the approved retention period ends
    5. EGranting every staff member read access to simplify support requests
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: A, B, D

    Classification, encryption, and secure disposal address different lifecycle stages, from creation through to end of life. Indefinite retention and broad read access both increase exposure, and they conflict with the data minimisation that a lifecycle approach expects.

  2. Question 25

    Which consideration is most important when an organization plans to move a core claims system to a cloud platform?

    1. AThe colour scheme that the provider uses on its customer dashboards
    2. BThe division of security responsibilities and the exit terms in the provider contract
    3. CWhether the provider has a sales office located close to the head office
    4. DThe number of desktop devices that will need access to the system
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: B

    A cloud move shifts some security responsibilities to the provider, so the boundary and the exit terms determine what risk the organization keeps. Dashboard colours, office location, and device count are operational details that do not change the risk position in a meaningful way.

  3. Question 26

    Which control best addresses the risk of unauthorized changes to production configuration?

    1. AMonthly one-to-one meetings between line managers and developers about their workloads and goals
    2. BChange management with documented approval, peer review, test evidence, and rollback
    3. CA longer minimum password length for the monitoring dashboard accounts
    4. DStoring the configuration files in a shared folder that every employee can edit
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: B

    A change process with approval, peer review, and recorded evidence prevents unauthorized changes and allows rollback when a change fails. Meetings and password length have little effect on who may change configuration, and an editable shared folder increases the risk it is meant to reduce.

  4. Question 27

    Which practice is most relevant to the SDLC from a risk management perspective?

    1. ALimiting security testing to user acceptance sessions held shortly before each release date
    2. BDefining security requirements and testing them at each phase, not only before go-live
    3. CAssuming that risks appear only in production and not in earlier environments
    4. DMaking documentation optional for systems that the organization builds internally
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: B

    Security requirements and tests at each phase catch design and build flaws when they are cheapest to fix. Testing only at acceptance, ignoring non-production environments, and skipping documentation all push risk later into the lifecycle where it costs more to correct.

  5. Question 28

    Which measure is a sound resilience practice for a critical service?

    1. ADocumented recovery procedures that are tested against the recovery time and recovery point objectives
    2. BA single backup stored in the same data center as the production system
    3. CRecovery plans that are written and reviewed but never exercised in a test
    4. DRecovery knowledge held by one administrator so that responsibility stays clear
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: A

    Recovery procedures are only credible when they are tested against the objectives set by the impact analysis. A backup in the same facility, untested plans, and knowledge held by one person each fail when a single site or person is unavailable.

  6. Question 29

    An organization plans to deploy a generative AI assistant for customer support. Which risk should be assessed first?

    1. AThe monthly subscription price charged for each licensed seat of the tool
    2. BThe typeface used for the text inside the chat widget on the website
    3. CExposure of customer data through prompts and vendor retention of conversation content
    4. DThe number of support agents who will be trained to use the tool
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: C

    Customer conversations may contain personal data that the vendor could retain or use, so data exposure is the primary risk to assess before deployment. Typeface, price, and training numbers matter for adoption and cost, but they do not describe the most serious harm.

  7. Question 30

    Which practice helps most to keep defects in software from reaching production?

    1. APeer code review before changes are merged into the main branch of the source repository
    2. BDeploying directly from a developer workstation to the production environment for speed
    3. CGranting developers full production administrator rights so that they can fix issues quickly
    4. DSkipping test environments for small changes so that releases can go out on the same day
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: A

    Peer review before merging catches defects before they enter the main line, and it is one of the cheapest controls in the development process. Deploying from workstations, granting broad production rights, and skipping test environments all remove checks that would otherwise catch defects.