All ISC2 exams
Free Certified Cloud Security Professional (CCSP) practice test: 30 questions with answers
30 original questions for Certified Cloud Security Professional (CCSP), drawn from every topic area. Answer each one to see whether you got it right and why. No sign-up.
- Free questions
- 30
- Full bank
- 112 questions
Certified Cloud Security Professional (CCSP) exam guide: topics, cost and format
All 30 Certified Cloud Security Professional (CCSP) questions with answers
The same questions as the test above, grouped by exam topic. Open any question to see the answer and explanation.
Cloud Concepts, Architecture and Design (5 questions)
Question 1
A regulated workload must run in a provider's data centre, but on infrastructure dedicated to one organisation. Which cloud deployment model fits?
- APrivate cloud operated by a third-party provider, where the infrastructure is dedicated to the single organisation using it
- BCommunity cloud, shared among several organisations that have a common compliance requirement and a shared mission to meet
- CPublic cloud with a dedicated tenancy option, where the provider shares its underlying hardware pools with other customers
- DHybrid cloud that combines the organisation's own data centre with a public provider that serves many other tenants
Show answer and explanationHide answer
Correct answer: AA managed private cloud is run by a provider but dedicated to one organisation, which matches the isolation the workload needs. Community clouds are shared among a group, public clouds share infrastructure across tenants, and hybrid clouds mix models rather than describing one dedicated environment.
Question 2
Under the shared responsibility model for infrastructure as a service, which party is responsible for patching the guest operating system?
- AThe cloud provider, which patches every guest operating system in the environment automatically on the customer's behalf each month
- BBoth parties equally, with the provider handling the hypervisor patches and the customer handling the application code only
- CThe customer, who maintains the guest operating system, its patches, and the configuration of the software installed on it
- DThe auditor appointed by the customer, who reviews the patch level of each guest at the end of each annual audit cycle
Show answer and explanationHide answer
Correct answer: CIn IaaS the customer manages the guest operating system, including patching, configuration and the software that runs on it. The provider covers the physical and hypervisor layers, and the other options misplace or invent responsibilities.
Question 3
Which NIST essential characteristic of cloud computing describes the ability to add or remove capacity automatically in response to demand?
- AResource pooling, which lets the provider share computing resources among many customers at the same time for efficiency
- BMeasured service, which controls and reports resource usage so that customers can be billed and can optimise their use
- CBroad network access, which makes capabilities available over standard networks through a range of client platforms and devices
- DRapid elasticity, which lets capacity be provisioned and released quickly to match demand, often automatically and in both directions
Show answer and explanationHide answer
Correct answer: DRapid elasticity is the characteristic that covers scaling capacity up and down with demand. Resource pooling describes sharing, broad access describes reach, and measured service describes metering, so none of the others is about automatic scaling.
Question 4
A cloud architect must keep a European customer's records stored and processed only in approved European regions. Which control fits best at design time?
- ARestrict where storage and processing may occur by using organisation policy and by selecting only approved regions for the workloads
- BEnable data compression on all storage volumes, so that the records take less space in each region the service uses for the data
- CRely on the provider's global replication, which keeps a copy of each record in the customer's home region automatically without any setup
- DAdd a firewall rule that blocks traffic from non-European IP addresses, so that the records never leave Europe under any circumstances
Show answer and explanationHide answer
Correct answer: ARestricting storage and processing to approved regions at design time enforces residency where the data is created and kept. Compression, relying on provider replication or filtering inbound addresses do not control where the data is stored or processed.
Question 5
Which two statements about the cloud shared responsibility model are correct? (Choose two.)
- AThe customer always remains responsible for the data it stores in the cloud, whichever service model it chooses to use
- BUnder SaaS the provider manages the application, while the customer still manages its users' access and how it handles data
- CUnder PaaS the customer manages the runtime and the operating system patches for the platform that the provider runs
- DThe provider is responsible for the data classification decisions that the customer makes for its own datasets in the cloud
- EPhysical security of the data centre is the customer's responsibility in every service model that the provider offers to it
Show answer and explanationHide answer
Correct answer: A, BCustomers keep responsibility for their data in every model, and in SaaS they still manage user access and data handling while the provider runs the application. Under PaaS the provider manages the runtime, and classification and data-centre security remain with the provider.
Cloud Data Security (5 questions)
Question 6
Which data state does TLS protect between a client application and a cloud API?
- AData in transit, which covers the data moving across networks between a client and a service while the connection is open
- BData at rest, which covers the data stored on disks, in objects and in backups held by the provider in its storage systems
- CData in use, which covers the data that an application processes in the memory of a server while it is running a job
- DData in archive, which covers older records kept for compliance that are rarely read after they are first stored by the team
Show answer and explanationHide answer
Correct answer: ATLS protects data in transit, the data moving between the client and the service. At-rest, in-use and archive are separate states that TLS does not cover on its own.
Question 7
A team wants to keep control of encryption keys in a cloud key management service, including rotation and revocation. Which option fits?
- AKeys embedded in the application source code, which the team rotates each time the code is released to the production system
- BProvider-managed keys, where the provider creates and rotates the keys on its own schedule and the customer has no visibility of them
- CCustomer-managed keys, where the customer creates, rotates and disables the keys inside the provider's key management service
- DKeys shared across every customer of the provider, so that the provider can decrypt data during support cases if it is needed
Show answer and explanationHide answer
Correct answer: CCustomer-managed keys let the customer control the key lifecycle, including rotation and revocation, inside the provider's key service. Provider-managed keys remove that control, embedded keys are hard to rotate and expose secrets, and shared keys break tenant isolation.
Question 8
A contract ends and the provider controls the physical storage that held the customer's data. Which technique best supports secure disposal?
- ADeleting the file names from the directory listing so that the data cannot be found easily by a search tool or a user
- BOverwriting each file with zeros once through the operating system before the volume is returned to the provider's pool
- CCryptographic erasure, which destroys the encryption keys so that the remaining ciphertext on the media cannot be read by anyone
- DMoving the data to a cheaper archive tier and waiting for the provider to delete it at the end of the contract term
Show answer and explanationHide answer
Correct answer: CCryptographic erasure works even when the customer does not control the physical media, because destroying the keys makes the data unreadable. Overwriting depends on storage behaving as expected, deleting names leaves the data intact, and archiving keeps it.
Question 9
A database column holds payment card numbers that analysts query. Which control reduces exposure if the analytics copy is accessed?
- AHashing the number with an unsalted function, so that analysts can still compare the same value for each card in the table
- BTokenisation, which replaces the card number with a token in the analytics copy, while the mapping is kept in a separately secured vault
- CStoring the number in a column comment, which is hidden from the default view of the table for most of the users who query it
- DGranting analysts read access to a view that selects every column except the primary key of the table and keeps the card column
Show answer and explanationHide answer
Correct answer: BTokenisation keeps the real card number out of the analytics copy, and only the vault can map a token back. An unsalted hash of a card number is easy to guess, comments are not access control, and a view that keeps the card column still exposes it.
Question 10
Which two controls protect data at rest in a cloud object store? (Choose two.)
- AServer-side encryption with keys managed in a key management service, with key access limited to the services that need it
- BPublic read access on the bucket, so that the encrypted objects can be fetched by any reader on the internet without a login
- CA copy of the encryption key stored in the same bucket as the encrypted objects, so the key is always available to every reader
- DUniform access control with least-privilege IAM roles, which limits who can read or delete the stored objects in the bucket
- EDisabling object versioning, which prevents accidental overwrites from keeping an encrypted copy of the earlier object version
Show answer and explanationHide answer
Correct answer: A, DServer-side encryption with managed keys protects stored data, and least-privilege IAM limits who can read or delete it. Public reads, keys stored beside the data and disabling versioning each weaken protection or recovery.
Cloud Platform & Infrastructure Security (5 questions)
Question 11
Which virtualisation risk matters most in a multi-tenant cloud when a guest VM breaks out of its isolation?
- AHypervisor escape, where an attacker breaks out of a guest virtual machine to reach the host or the guests of other tenants
- BCertificate expiry, where an expired certificate stops the guest operating system from loading correctly during each boot cycle
- CDisk fragmentation, where the file system scatters data across blocks, which slows reads inside the guest over a long period
- DLatency jitter, where the network delay between requests varies over time, but no data is exposed to any other tenant at all
Show answer and explanationHide answer
Correct answer: AA hypervisor escape lets code in one guest reach the host or other tenants, which is the core multi-tenant isolation risk. Certificate expiry, disk fragmentation and latency jitter are operational issues that do not cross tenant boundaries.
Question 12
A design must separate production and development networks, while allowing only specific flows between them. Which construct fits?
- AA single flat network for all environments, with developers trusted to avoid connecting to the production systems by mistake
- BSeparate VPC networks, joined by peering or a controlled gateway, with firewall rules that allow only the required ports between them
- CPublic IP addresses on every instance, so that the firewall does not need to inspect the traffic that passes between the two networks
- DIdentical IP ranges in both environments, so that the routing table can use one shared entry to reach both networks together
Show answer and explanationHide answer
Correct answer: BSeparate networks with controlled connectivity and explicit firewall rules limit flows to the required ones. Flat networks rely on trust, public addresses weaken isolation, and identical IP ranges cause routing conflicts.
Question 13
Which control protects a cloud workload from its management interface being exposed to the internet?
- AA bastion host or identity-aware access on a private network, with no public management port open on the workload itself
- BA public IP address on the management port with a strong password, so that administrators can reach it from any location
- CA default allow-all firewall rule that the operator removes later, after the initial setup has been verified by the team
- DAn open remote desktop port that is watched by an alert, so that any exposure can be noticed in time by the security staff
Show answer and explanationHide answer
Correct answer: AKeeping management ports off the public internet and reaching them through a bastion or identity-aware proxy removes the exposure. Public addresses with passwords, open defaults and alert-only designs leave the port reachable.
Question 14
In a cloud disaster recovery plan, which objective sets the maximum acceptable amount of data loss, measured as time?
- ARecovery time objective (RTO), which is the maximum acceptable time to restore the service after a disruption has occurred
- BService level agreement uptime percentage, which is the share of the month for which the service must be available to its users
- CMean time between failures (MTBF), which is the average operating time between failures of a component within the system over time
- DRecovery point objective (RPO), which is the maximum acceptable amount of data loss, measured as the time since the last recovery point
Show answer and explanationHide answer
Correct answer: DRPO defines how much recent data can be lost, expressed as the time since the last recovery point. RTO covers how long recovery may take, while MTBF and uptime percentages describe reliability rather than acceptable data loss.
Question 15
Which two controls help isolate workloads that share a Kubernetes cluster? (Choose two.)
- ANetwork policies that restrict pod-to-pod traffic to the flows each application actually needs to function correctly
- BRunning every container as the root user, so that the kernel allows all system calls without restriction for the workloads
- CNamespaces with resource quotas and role-based access control that separate teams and limit what each team can use
- DMounting the host's container runtime socket into each pod, so that the pods can manage their own containers directly
- EAllowing privileged containers for all workloads, so that no pod is blocked by a security policy when it starts up
Show answer and explanationHide answer
Correct answer: A, CNetwork policies limit lateral movement between pods, and namespaces with quotas and RBAC separate tenants' resources and permissions. Root containers, host socket mounts and privileged containers all break isolation.
Cloud Application Security (5 questions)
Question 16
A cloud application must verify that API callers present a valid, unexpired token from a trusted identity provider. Which standards fit?
- AA shared password typed into a configuration file that the API reads on each request for every user who calls it
- BOAuth 2.0 and OpenID Connect, which issue access and identity tokens that APIs validate against the trusted provider
- CIP allowlisting as the only check, which trusts any caller that arrives from a known network address range of the company
- DBasic HTTP authentication with one service account password that all clients of the API share between them for simplicity
Show answer and explanationHide answer
Correct answer: BOAuth 2.0 and OpenID Connect provide delegated access and identity tokens that APIs can validate, including expiry and issuer. Shared passwords, IP allowlists alone and shared basic credentials do not identify individual users or validate tokens.
Question 17
Which practice finds injection flaws in an application's source code before it is deployed?
- AStatic application security testing (SAST), which analyses the source code and the build for patterns of injection and other flaws
- BLoad testing, which measures how many requests per second the application can serve under the peak demand expected by the business
- CDynamic testing against production only, which runs attack traffic against the live site after each release to find flaws
- DUptime monitoring, which alerts the team when the application stops responding to health checks from outside the network
Show answer and explanationHide answer
Correct answer: ASAST analyses source code and build artefacts early, which is where injection patterns can be caught before deployment. Load testing, production-only testing and uptime monitoring either come too late or measure different qualities.
Question 18
A serverless function needs a database password. Which practice keeps the credential out of the function code and its configuration?
- APrint the password to the function's logs during each run, so that operators can check that the value has been set correctly
- BPlace the database password in the function's environment variables in plain text, which the platform encrypts only while it is stored
- CCommit the password to the team's shared code repository in a settings file, so that every developer on the team has it available
- DRetrieve the credential at run time from a managed secrets store, with the function's identity granted read access to that one secret
Show answer and explanationHide answer
Correct answer: DReading secrets at run time from a managed store, with access limited to the function's identity, keeps them out of code and configuration. Plain environment variables, repositories and logs all expose the password to anyone who can read those places.
Question 19
A secure code review finds user input concatenated directly into a database query. Which fix is correct?
- AEscape the quotation marks in the first input field only, since that is the field that attackers most often use in practice
- BUse parameterised queries or prepared statements, so that the input is always treated as data and never as part of the SQL
- CLimit the length of the input to 1000 characters, which keeps the SQL statement short enough to be harmless for the database
- DMove the query into a stored procedure that the application builds by concatenating the same user input into it again
Show answer and explanationHide answer
Correct answer: BParameterised queries separate the SQL statement from the data, so user input cannot change the query's structure. Escaping one field, length limits and moving the concatenation into a procedure all leave the injection path open.
Question 20
Which three controls reduce the risk of injection or misuse in a cloud API? (Choose three.)
- AInput validation against an allowlist of expected formats and value ranges, applied on every endpoint of the service
- BReturning full stack traces in error responses so that developers can debug the problem from the client side directly
- COutput encoding for the context where the data is rendered, so that script in the input is not executed by the browser
- DSchema validation of request bodies before the business logic runs on the parsed data that the request carries
- EAccepting any content type from clients and parsing each body with the most permissive parser available in the stack
Show answer and explanationHide answer
Correct answer: A, C, DAllowlist validation, output encoding and schema validation each block malformed or malicious input at a different point in the request path. Verbose errors leak internals, and permissive parsing widens the attack surface.
Cloud Security Operations (5 questions)
Question 21
A SOC needs audit events from all cloud accounts in one place for detection. Which pattern is most appropriate?
- ADelete the logs after 24 hours to reduce storage costs, since the SIEM only needs recent events in order to run its detections
- BKeep logs only in each account and have analysts sign in to every account separately each day to check the events by hand
- CCentralise logs from every account into a dedicated security account with restricted access, then forward them to the SIEM
- DSend the logs to a shared developer workspace so that engineers can find them quickly while they are debugging an application
Show answer and explanationHide answer
Correct answer: CCentralising logs in a restricted security account keeps them tamper-resistant and gives the SIEM one view across accounts. Per-account checks are slow, deleting logs removes evidence, and developer workspaces lack the access separation the SOC needs.
Question 22
A vulnerability scanner reports a critical flaw in a production image. What is the best next step?
- AIgnore the finding until the next quarterly audit, since the scanner often reports false positives for production images in the cloud
- BAssess the exposure and exploitability, then patch or rebuild the image through the pipeline and verify the fix in the environment
- CDisable the scanner so that it stops raising more critical findings while the team works through the existing backlog of issues
- DPublish the vulnerability details on the public status page, so that customers know the team is aware of the problem in the image
Show answer and explanationHide answer
Correct answer: BTriaging against real exposure, then fixing through the rebuild pipeline and verifying the result, closes the risk. Ignoring the finding, switching off the scanner and publishing the details do not reduce the risk to the workload.
Question 23
An incident playbook covers a compromised cloud access key. What is the first containment step?
- AEmail the key to the user's manager so that they can confirm whether the key was used legitimately before any change is made
- BDelete the key along with all the logs about its use, so that the attackers cannot read the evidence of their activity later
- CDisable the compromised key and revoke the sessions it issued, then review its recent activity in the audit logs for impact
- DCreate a second copy of the key for the investigators, so that they can test it without touching the original key in production
Show answer and explanationHide answer
Correct answer: CDisabling the key and revoking its sessions stops further misuse, and the audit logs then show what happened. Deleting logs destroys evidence, emailing keys spreads the secret, and copies of the key widen the exposure.
Question 24
A team wants to know which cloud configurations drift from the approved baseline. Which practice provides this?
- AA yearly manual review of a printed list of settings, checked against the team's memory of the previous year's state
- BContinuous configuration monitoring against a defined baseline, with alerts when resources diverge from the approved settings
- CAllowing each engineer to change settings freely and reconciling the differences only after an outage has happened later
- DStoring the baseline in a spreadsheet that is not linked to the cloud accounts, which nobody updates after it is first written
Show answer and explanationHide answer
Correct answer: BContinuous monitoring against a defined baseline detects drift as it happens and alerts the team. Annual manual checks, unrestricted changes and an unlinked spreadsheet cannot detect drift in time.
Question 25
A cloud team wants alerts on a sudden spike in outbound data transfer from a storage account. Which signal and tool fit?
- AA yearly review of the storage account's settings by the infrastructure lead, to see whether anything in them looks unusual
- BA monthly billing report reviewed by the finance team after the invoice arrives at the end of each month for the account
- CCloud monitoring metrics on egress bytes with an alert threshold, combined with the logs that show which identities made the transfers
- DAn uptime check on the storage account's public endpoint, which measures how long the account stays available to its users
Show answer and explanationHide answer
Correct answer: CEgress metrics with an alert threshold surface spikes quickly, and logs show the identities behind them. Monthly bills, yearly reviews and uptime checks are too slow or measure different things.
Legal, Risk and Compliance (5 questions)
Question 26
A customer needs independent evidence that a provider's controls operated effectively over a period. Which document is most useful?
- AThe provider's public status page history, which shows only the availability of the services during each of the recent months
- BA marketing brochure that lists the provider's security features and the certifications the provider hopes to earn in future
- CA SOC 2 Type II report from an independent auditor, which covers the operating effectiveness of the provider's controls over time
- DA customer's own spreadsheet of controls with the owner's notes, which has not been reviewed by any external party at all
Show answer and explanationHide answer
Correct answer: CA SOC 2 Type II report gives independent assurance of control operation over a period, which is the evidence auditors need. Brochures, status history and self-assessments are not independent attestation.
Question 27
A cloud contract must let the customer require return or deletion of its data at exit. Which contract element covers this?
- AA clause that gives the provider the right to sell the data to third parties at the end of the contract period each year
- BA marketing clause that describes the provider's commitment to a green data centre programme and to carbon offset purchases
- CA clause stating that the provider may keep the data indefinitely for product improvement after the contract has ended
- DA data return and deletion clause that defines timelines, formats and certification of destruction at the end of the contract
Show answer and explanationHide answer
Correct answer: DA data return and deletion clause sets how and when data is returned or destroyed, with evidence of destruction. Marketing clauses and clauses that allow indefinite retention or sale of data work against the customer's control.
Question 28
Personal data subject to a privacy law must not move to a country without an adequate protection mechanism. What is the best control?
- ADeleting the transfer logs, since the regulator only reviews the transfers that the company has recorded in its own transfer files
- BUsing the same encryption key across all regions, which is assumed to make cross-border transfers lawful in every case that arises
- CMoving the data to the nearest cloud region at random each month, so that no single country keeps the data for long periods
- DData mapping and transfer assessments, with contract and technical safeguards selected to meet the adequacy requirement for each destination
Show answer and explanationHide answer
Correct answer: DMapping the data flows and assessing each transfer lets the team choose contract and technical safeguards that meet the adequacy rules. Shared keys, random moves and deleting logs do not satisfy the requirement and remove the evidence of compliance.
Question 29
Which two obligations commonly apply when a cloud customer's data includes personal information about EU residents? (Choose two.)
- ADocumenting the lawful basis for processing and the purposes for which the personal data is used by the organisation
- BPublishing the full list of customers on the company website as proof of transparency to the regulators who oversee it
- CNotifying the supervisory authority of a personal data breach within the time limit that the regulation sets for it
- DKeeping all personal data on paper in the head office, so that the data cannot be exposed by any breach of systems
- ESelling the personal data to advertisers whenever the price of the cloud contract increases each year as the vendor requires
Show answer and explanationHide answer
Correct answer: A, CRegimes such as GDPR require a lawful basis and documented purposes, along with breach notification to the authority within a set period. Publishing customer lists, paper storage and selling data are not required and conflict with privacy obligations.
Question 30
Which concept requires an organisation to show who had access to regulated data and what those people did with it?
- ARight to erasure, which requires the organisation to keep a full copy of every access record for any person whose data was deleted
- BData minimisation, which requires the organisation to collect as many data fields as possible for future uses it may have
- CData portability, which requires the organisation to delete all of its access records after each transfer to a new processor
- DAccountability and auditability, which require access and action records that can be produced to a regulator on request
Show answer and explanationHide answer
Correct answer: DAccountability requires the organisation to demonstrate compliance, and auditable access records are the evidence for it. Minimisation, portability and erasure rights address different obligations and do not themselves require access records to be produced.