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Free Information Systems Security Architecture Professional (ISSAP) practice test: 30 questions with answers
30 original questions for Information Systems Security Architecture Professional (ISSAP), drawn from every topic area. Answer each one to see whether you got it right and why. No sign-up.
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Information Systems Security Architecture Professional (ISSAP) exam guide: topics, cost and format
All 30 Information Systems Security Architecture Professional (ISSAP) questions with answers
The same questions as the test above, grouped by exam topic. Open any question to see the answer and explanation.
Infrastructure and System Security (8 questions)
Question 1
A water utility wants its business reporting network to receive historian data from the process control network. Several controllers cannot be patched. Under IEC 62443 zone and conduit thinking, which design is most appropriate?
- AAn assumption that the process network is isolated, so the link between them needs no monitoring
- BA flat layer 2 switch that connects both networks so every host can reach historian data
- CDirect read access for the reporting team to the controllers so that the data stays current
- DSeparate zones joined by one monitored conduit that carries only the historian traffic
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Correct answer: DIEC 62443 groups assets into security zones and controls traffic that crosses between them through conduits, so one monitored conduit carrying only the needed data is the right design. A flat network, direct controller access, or an assumed isolation that does not exist would all expose the controllers.
Question 2
In the Purdue reference model for industrial control systems, where is the industrial demilitarized zone typically placed?
- ABetween the field device level and the basic control level
- BBetween the site operations level and the enterprise business level
- CAbove the enterprise level, outside the corporate firewall boundary
- DInside the supervisory control level, alongside the operator HMI servers
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Correct answer: BThe industrial DMZ, often called level 3.5, sits between site operations at level 3 and enterprise systems at level 4, where data can be exchanged safely. The other placements either separate field devices from controllers or put the DMZ outside the enterprise boundary.
Question 3
A company moves a line-of-business application onto virtual machines in a public cloud IaaS service. Under the shared responsibility model, which task remains the customer's responsibility?
- APatching the guest operating system and the applications on the virtual machines
- BMaintaining physical security controls for the data center that hosts the provider's servers
- CReplacing failed storage drives and power supplies in the provider's racks during maintenance
- DKeeping the hypervisor and host firmware on the provider's physical servers up to date
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Correct answer: AIn IaaS the customer manages the guest operating system, the applications and their configuration, while the provider secures the facilities, hardware and hypervisor. The other three options are provider responsibilities.
Question 4
Badge readers guard a data center entrance, but employees often let visitors follow them through the door without badging. Which physical control best addresses this tailgating risk?
- AA mantrap, a two-door vestibule where one door must close before the other opens
- BMotion-activated cameras pointed at the parking lot to record every arriving vehicle
- CA written policy requiring staff to report any visitor they see following them inside
- DGuards at the building perimeter who check identification before anyone may enter
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Correct answer: AA mantrap admits one person at a time, which stops tailgating at the point of entry. Parking lot cameras, a reporting policy and perimeter guards do not physically prevent a second person from slipping through the data center door.
Question 5
Which IEEE standard provides port-based network access control, authenticating a device at the switch port before it receives network access?
- AIEEE 802.1X port-based access control using an EAP framework
- BIEEE 802.3ad link aggregation for combining several physical uplinks
- CIEEE 802.1Q VLAN tagging for separating broadcast domains on trunk links
- DIEEE 802.11 wireless standard for radio-based transmission of frames
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Correct answer: AIEEE 802.1X authenticates a client at a switch or access point port, typically through EAP, before it is allowed onto the network. The other standards aggregate links, tag VLAN traffic, or define wireless transmission, so none of them controls port access.
Question 6
An organization's signature-based antivirus missed a fileless attack that ran PowerShell from memory. Which endpoint capability is best suited to detect this kind of behavior and support the investigation?
- AMonthly manual comparison of installed software against the approved application catalog list
- BA scheduled job that re-encrypts every workstation volume with full-disk encryption each night
- CHost-based firewall rules that limit inbound connections on each workstation to approved ports
- DEndpoint detection and response with behavioral telemetry and process-level investigation
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Correct answer: DEndpoint detection and response records process, memory and script behavior and lets analysts trace activity, which is how fileless attacks are found. Full-disk encryption, host firewall rules and software inventory checks do not observe running behavior.
Question 7
A team discovers that a symmetric key used to encrypt backups was copied to a developer laptop that was later lost. What is the best next step in the key lifecycle?
- AKeep the current key but change the backup schedule so future runs use a new window
- BRevoke the compromised key, generate a new key and re-protect the affected backups
- CStore a second copy of the key in the same vault so the team can restore more quickly
- DArchive the laptop's key file for forensic review and keep using the key for new backups
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Correct answer: BA key that may be exposed must be revoked and replaced, and the data it protected should be re-encrypted under the new key. Changing the schedule, duplicating the key, or continuing to use the compromised key leaves the exposure in place.
Question 8
A payment platform must keep its signing keys protected even if an administrator's server is fully compromised. Which approach best meets this requirement?
- AStore the signing keys in an encrypted file on the application server, protected by a long password
- BKeep signing keys in a hardware security module that performs signing internally
- CPlace the signing keys in a configuration file that only the application's service account can read
- DCopy the signing keys to a shared mailbox so that backup copies exist outside the primary system
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Correct answer: BAn HSM keeps private key material inside tamper-resistant hardware and performs signing there, so a compromised host cannot simply copy the key. Encrypted files, readable configuration files and mailbox copies all place key material where a compromised server or administrator can reach it.
Identity and Access Management (IAM) Architecture (8 questions)
Question 9
An audit finds dozens of active accounts belonging to contractors whose engagements ended months ago. Which identity lifecycle phase was not carried out correctly?
- AProvisioning, which creates accounts and initial access when a new worker first joins
- BDeprovisioning, which removes or disables access when a working relationship ends
- CAuthentication, which verifies the identity of a user each time that user signs in
- DAuthorization, which decides which resources an authenticated user may reach afterward
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Correct answer: BDeprovisioning removes or disables access when a relationship ends, and its failure leaves orphaned contractor accounts. The other options describe creating accounts or the checks that run after access is granted, so they would not explain lingering contractor accounts.
Question 10
Which statement describes how SAML is used for web single sign-on?
- AA ticket protocol in which a central key distribution center issues session tickets to clients and servers
- BAn XML-based framework in which an identity provider issues signed assertions to service providers
- CA token framework that grants a client delegated access to an API without sharing the user's password
- DA client-server protocol that encrypts only the password attribute inside authentication request packets
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Correct answer: BSAML 2.0 exchanges XML assertions signed by an identity provider so that service providers can trust the user's identity for single sign-on. Kerberos uses tickets from a key distribution center, OAuth issues delegated access tokens, and RADIUS encrypts only the password field.
Question 11
A network team wants administrators who log into routers and switches to be authenticated centrally, with per-command authorization and full encryption of the AAA exchange. Which protocol fits best?
- ATACACS+, which encrypts the whole payload and separates authorization from authentication
- BRADIUS, which encrypts only the password attribute and combines authentication with authorization
- CA simple LDAP bind over an unencrypted link, which sends credentials in clear text
- DSAML, which exchanges XML assertions between an identity provider and the network operating system
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Correct answer: ATACACS+ encrypts the whole packet body and separates authentication, authorization and accounting, which suits per-command control of device administration. RADIUS encrypts only the password and merges authentication with authorization, while plain LDAP binds and SAML do not handle device command authorization.
Question 12
In a Kerberos deployment, users with correct passwords repeatedly fail to obtain service tickets. Which underlying condition is a frequent cause of this failure?
- AThe directory stores each account's password as a salted hash rather than in reversible form
- BThe web server's public certificate has not been imported into the browser's trusted store
- CThe user has enabled a one-time code on the application's login screen for extra security
- DClocks on the client and the key distribution center have drifted too far apart
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Correct answer: DKerberos tickets carry timestamps, so a large clock skew between the client and the KDC makes ticket validation fail even when the credentials are correct. Certificate trust, one-time codes and salted password storage are not the usual cause of Kerberos ticket failures.
Question 13
A company allows access to a finance report only when the requester is in the finance department, is using a managed device, and the request falls within business hours. Which authorization model best fits this rule?
- ADiscretionary access control, which lets each resource owner decide which users may read a file
- BRole-based access control, which grants permissions to predefined roles that users are assigned to
- CAttribute-based access control, which evaluates user, device, resource and time attributes
- DMandatory access control, which enforces central labels on subjects and objects in the system
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Correct answer: CAttribute-based access control makes decisions from attributes of the user, device, resource and context, so it can express the department, device and time conditions together. RBAC keys off roles, DAC leaves decisions to owners, and MAC relies on central labels, so none captures all three conditions directly.
Question 14
An administrator needs elevated rights on a production database for a two-hour maintenance window. Security requires the rights to be removed automatically afterward and every session to be recorded. Which capability does this describe?
- AStanding domain administrator membership granted to the database team for convenience
- BA shared administrator account protected by a password that is changed once a year
- CPrivileged access management with just-in-time elevation and session recording
- DA quarterly review of database administrator memberships performed by the help desk team
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Correct answer: CPrivileged access management grants elevated rights just in time, removes them when the task ends, and records sessions for accountability. Shared passwords, standing administrator membership and periodic reviews all keep privilege persistent or unrecorded.
Question 15
Which two practices strengthen accounting and audit logging for identity systems? (Choose two.)
- AForwarding authentication and privilege change events to a central log store with restricted access
- BLetting administrators edit local log files so that noisy entries can be removed before review
- CSynchronizing system clocks to a trusted time source so events from different systems can be correlated
- DLogging only failed sign-ins so that the volume stays small enough to review by hand
- EKeeping logs only on the host that generated them so that retrieval is faster during incidents
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Correct answer: A, CCentral, access-restricted log storage protects audit records from local tampering, and accurate synchronized time lets investigators correlate events across systems. Allowing edits, logging only failures and keeping logs on the originating host all weaken the audit trail.
Question 16
A web application must confirm who the user is after sign-in, and it also needs a token it can use to call an API on the user's behalf. Which combination fits this requirement?
- ARADIUS accounting records showing that the user signed in, plus an OAuth refresh token for the API
- BSAML assertions for both identity and API access, sent directly as bearer tokens to the API
- CKerberos service tickets for both identity proof and delegated API access across the web tier
- DOpenID Connect for the identity assertion, with OAuth 2.0 access tokens for the API call
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Correct answer: DOpenID Connect adds an identity layer on top of OAuth 2.0, and OAuth supplies the access token for delegated API calls. SAML is not designed to issue bearer tokens for APIs, Kerberos tickets are not meant for browser-based delegation, and RADIUS accounting records do not establish identity for web applications.
Security Architecture Modeling (7 questions)
Question 17
During threat modeling for a payment API, the team notes that a customer could submit a transaction and later credibly deny having done so, because no tamper-evident audit record ties the action to the account. Which STRIDE category describes this threat?
- ASpoofing
- BTampering
- CRepudiation
- DInformation disclosure
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Correct answer: CRepudiation is the STRIDE category for a party being able to deny an action when the system cannot prove otherwise, which is what missing tamper-evident records allow. Spoofing concerns false identity, tampering concerns unauthorized changes, and information disclosure concerns exposure of data.
Question 18
In CVSS scoring, which metric group lets an organization adjust a vulnerability's severity using its own deployed controls and the importance of the affected asset?
- ABase, which captures the intrinsic characteristics of a vulnerability that stay the same in every environment
- BTemporal, which captures how exploit availability and fix availability change the score over time
- CExploitability, which captures how hard it is for an attacker to take advantage of the flaw
- DEnvironmental, which captures the organization's own context such as its deployed controls
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Correct answer: DEnvironmental metrics let an organization modify the score using its own security requirements and the controls it has in place. Base metrics are fixed intrinsic traits, temporal metrics track exploit and fix maturity, and exploitability is a sub-score inside the base group.
Question 19
An enterprise architect wants a framework in which business requirements drive every security architecture layer, with each layer described through a matrix of what, how, where, who, when and why. Which framework matches this description?
- ASABSA, a business-driven architecture framework built on a layered matrix of interrogatives
- BITIL, a set of practices for managing IT services through their full lifecycle from design onward
- CCOBIT, a governance framework that sets objectives and control practices for enterprise IT
- DNIST SP 800-53, a catalog of security and privacy controls organized into families for federal systems
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Correct answer: ASABSA is a business-driven security architecture framework whose layers are traced with a matrix of what, how, where, who, when and why. ITIL covers IT service management, COBIT covers governance objectives, and NIST SP 800-53 is a control catalog, so none of the others is an architecture framework built on that matrix.
Question 20
A company must define its target architecture for the next three years. It wants a repeatable, iterative method with phases for architecture vision, business, information systems, technology, opportunities and migration planning. Which TOGAF component provides this method?
- AThe Plan-Do-Check-Act loop, which drives continuous improvement through repeated quality review cycles
- BThe Capability Maturity Model, which rates process maturity on levels from initial to optimizing
- CThe Enterprise Risk Management cycle, which identifies, assesses, treats and monitors enterprise risks
- DThe Architecture Development Method, an iterative cycle of phases from setup to change management
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Correct answer: DThe Architecture Development Method is the iterative, phase-based cycle at the core of TOGAF, covering vision, business, information systems, technology, opportunities and migration. The other choices are general management models that are not part of TOGAF.
Question 21
A manufacturing company runs a legacy engineering application that cannot be patched because the vendor no longer supports it. The security architect must reduce exposure without changing the application. Which action is an example of a compensating control?
- ARecording the risk in the enterprise register and deferring any decision until the next budget cycle
- BAsking the vendor to publish a roadmap for the next major release of the product
- CIsolating the application on a restricted network segment with filtered access from approved hosts
- DRemoving the application's findings from all scanner reports so that future audits look much cleaner
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Correct answer: CCompensating controls are alternatives used when the preferred control, here patching, is not possible, and network isolation limits who can reach the vulnerable system. The other options defer the problem, ignore it, or do nothing to reduce exposure.
Question 22
Which two activities provide design verification or code review assurance before a system is deployed? (Choose two.)
- AStatic application security testing of source code against the organization's secure coding standard
- BRunning a dynamic scan against the production environment after the release window has closed
- CA formal architecture review that compares the proposed design with approved security requirements
- DReading the vendor's marketing brochure to confirm which encryption options the product supports
- ERestoring a backup to a test host to confirm that the application starts without errors
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Correct answer: A, CStatic analysis of source code and an architecture review against security requirements both verify the design or implementation before go-live. A scan after release happens too late for pre-deployment assurance, and reading brochures or test restores do not verify security design.
Question 23
An API gateway slows to a crawl when a botnet floods it with requests, and legitimate customers cannot place orders. Which STRIDE category does this threat fall under?
- ASpoofing
- BDenial of service
- CElevation of privilege
- DTampering
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Correct answer: BDenial of service is the STRIDE category for threats that block or degrade availability, which is what the request flood does. Spoofing involves a false identity, elevation of privilege involves gaining unauthorized rights, and tampering involves unauthorized modification of data.
Governance, Risk, and Compliance (GRC) (7 questions)
Question 24
A regional clinic stores patient records and also accepts card payments from patients. Its compliance lead wants one document that lists each legal, regulatory and contractual obligation along with the systems and datasets it applies to. Which artifact fits this need?
- AA business continuity plan that sets recovery priorities for each clinical application
- BA penetration test report that lists every exploitable weakness found across the clinic's network and cloud accounts
- CA compliance obligations register that maps each requirement to the systems and data it covers
- DA vendor security questionnaire that the card processor completed during onboarding
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Correct answer: CA compliance obligations register links each legal, regulatory and contractual requirement to the assets it governs, which is what the lead asked for. The pen test shows technical weaknesses, the continuity plan covers recovery, and the questionnaire covers only one vendor, so none of them provides the full mapping.
Question 25
A company signs a contract with a cloud provider that will host its customer records. Which contract term best lets the company verify that the provider's security controls actually operate as promised?
- AA governing-law clause that names the jurisdiction where any dispute about the contract is heard
- BA limitation-of-liability clause that caps the provider's financial exposure after a data breach
- CA right-to-audit clause that allows assessment of controls and review of assurance reports
- DAn exclusivity clause that prevents the provider from serving the company's direct competitors
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Correct answer: CA right-to-audit clause gives the customer a contractual basis to assess the provider's controls and request evidence such as independent assurance reports. Liability caps, governing law and exclusivity clauses address money, jurisdiction and business terms rather than verification.
Question 26
A data owner has classified a customer database as confidential. Which responsibility belongs to the data custodian rather than to the data owner?
- AImplementing backups, encryption and access controls that enforce the classification
- BDeciding which people may be granted access to the database and for which business purpose
- CApproving the classification level and the retention period for the stored records
- DAccepting the business risk the organization carries for losses involving the records
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Correct answer: AOwners decide classification, access rules and risk acceptance, while custodians, often IT staff, implement and operate the safeguards that enforce those decisions. The other three options describe owner decisions, so the custodian's implementation duty is the one that differs.
Question 27
A startup considers a feature that would collect biometric data. Its counsel says the feature would create serious regulatory exposure that the company cannot justify, so leadership drops the feature from the roadmap entirely. Which risk treatment did they choose?
- ARisk acceptance, because the company has decided to live with the exposure for now
- BRisk avoidance, because the activity that creates the exposure is no longer performed
- CRisk transfer, because an insurance policy would cover any penalty that might follow later
- DRisk mitigation, because additional controls would lower the chance of a penalty being imposed
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Correct answer: BAvoidance removes the activity that creates the risk, which is what dropping the feature does. Acceptance keeps the exposure, transfer shifts it to another party, and mitigation reduces it with controls, so those three do not match the decision described.
Question 28
A retailer estimates that one outage of its online store costs 10,000 USD in lost sales and recovery work. Analysts expect about two such outages per year. Using quantitative risk analysis, what is the annualized loss expectancy for this threat?
- A5,000 USD
- B10,000 USD
- C40,000 USD
- D20,000 USD
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Correct answer: DAnnualized loss expectancy equals single loss expectancy multiplied by the annualized rate of occurrence, so 10,000 x 2 = 20,000 USD. The other figures reflect treating one outage as the annual total, halving the frequency, or doubling the frequency to four outages.
Question 29
Which two activities are part of mapping assets and stakeholders in an architecture effort? (Choose two.)
- AIdentifying the data owners and business sponsors who are accountable for each critical system
- BRecording hardware, software and data stores along with their dependencies and locations
- CSelecting a replacement intrusion detection vendor before any systems have been catalogued
- DApproving the annual security awareness budget before any asset list has been prepared
- EPublishing the enterprise password policy to all staff before stakeholders have been identified
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Correct answer: A, BMapping means building an inventory of assets with their dependencies and linking each asset to its accountable stakeholders. Vendor selection, budget approval and policy publication are separate activities that do not belong to the mapping step.
Question 30
A retailer plans to combine loyalty purchase history, store location data and website browsing to build detailed profiles of its customers for targeted pricing. Under GDPR-style privacy requirements, which assessment should be completed before this processing begins?
- AA capacity plan that forecasts storage and processing needs for the loyalty data over three years
- BA vulnerability assessment of the loyalty platform that lists missing patches and misconfigurations
- CA data protection impact assessment that evaluates risks to individuals before this high-risk processing starts
- DA penetration test of the public website that attempts to reach customer accounts through its login
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Correct answer: CA data protection impact assessment is the privacy review required for high-risk processing such as large-scale profiling, and it evaluates risks to individuals before the processing begins. The vulnerability assessment, capacity plan and penetration test address security or operations, not the privacy risk created by the planned profiling.