All ISC2 exams
Free Information Systems Security Engineering Professional (ISSEP) practice test: 30 questions with answers
30 original questions for Information Systems Security Engineering Professional (ISSEP), drawn from every topic area. Answer each one to see whether you got it right and why. No sign-up.
- Free questions
- 30
- Full bank
- 112 questions
- Real exam
- 125 questions, 180 min
- Passing score
- 700/1000
Information Systems Security Engineering Professional (ISSEP) exam guide: topics, cost and format
All 30 Information Systems Security Engineering Professional (ISSEP) questions with answers
The same questions as the test above, grouped by exam topic. Open any question to see the answer and explanation.
Systems Security Engineering Foundations (6 questions)
Question 1
An engineering team is redesigning an internal application so that a request from a server on the corporate network is no longer accepted without verification just because it originates inside the network. Which trust model is the team applying?
- AZero trust, where every request is continuously verified and authorized regardless of its network location
- BPerimeter-based trust, where traffic from inside the corporate network is assumed safe and allowed through
- CImplicit trust, where a successful login at the edge firewall grants access to all internal resources
- DLeast common mechanism, where all users share one authentication service to simplify access checks
Show answer and explanationHide answer
Correct answer: AZero trust removes implicit trust based on network location, so each request is authenticated, authorized, and evaluated continuously. Perimeter-based and implicit trust both assume internal traffic is safe once it passes a boundary, and least common mechanism is a design principle about minimizing shared mechanisms rather than a trust model.
Question 2
Which design principle states that access decisions should default to denial, so that a missing or failed configuration does not grant access by accident?
- AFail-safe defaults, which deny access unless it has been explicitly granted
- BEconomy of mechanism, which keeps security designs small and simple enough to verify
- COpen design, which assumes the protection mechanism can be publicly known without weakening it
- DPsychological acceptability, which makes security controls easy for users to follow correctly
Show answer and explanationHide answer
Correct answer: AFail-safe defaults is the Saltzer and Schroeder principle that a default or failure leads to denial rather than access. Economy of mechanism concerns simplicity, open design concerns whether the design must stay secret, and psychological acceptability concerns usability.
Question 3
A program office wants security requirements to stay traceable from mission needs through system models to verification, instead of relying on separate documents that quickly drift out of date. Which approach best supports this goal?
- ADocument-centric review, using signed word-processing files as the single source of truth for each phase
- BModel-based systems engineering, using connected models for requirements, design, and verification
- CAd hoc tracing, with requirements tracked informally in email threads between the engineering teams
- DWaterfall gating, closing each phase once its documentation has been approved by the reviewing committee
Show answer and explanationHide answer
Correct answer: BModel-based systems engineering keeps requirements, design, and verification linked in connected models so traceability is maintained as the system evolves. Document-centric review, informal tracing, and phase gating do not provide the same live traceability between needs and verification.
Question 4
Which two activities help integrate security into the system development lifecycle? (Choose two.)
- APerforming threat analysis while security requirements are being defined
- BRunning all security testing only after the system has been deployed to production
- CHolding security design reviews at each major lifecycle milestone
- DAdding security controls only after an audit finding identifies a gap
- ELeaving security decisions to developers without review by the security team
Show answer and explanationHide answer
Correct answer: A, CThreat analysis during requirements and design reviews at milestones are early, repeated security activities that the lifecycle depends on. Testing only after deployment, adding controls only after audit findings, and unreviewed developer decisions push security to the end or remove it, which is the opposite of integration.
Question 5
A security architect wants a clear, auditable record of which software and configuration version is approved for a production system, and who authorized each change. Which systems engineering practice provides this?
- AConfiguration management, which controls and records approved baselines and every change to them
- BEliminating routine risk assessments so that every update can proceed without any delay
- CReplacing documented security requirements with automated scans run by the vendor
- DMaximizing the speed at which new features reach end users, with minimal review by the security team
Show answer and explanationHide answer
Correct answer: AConfiguration management maintains the integrity of approved baselines by controlling, recording, and authorizing changes. The other options either trade security review for speed or substitute scans for documented requirements, which does not produce an approved, auditable change history.
Question 6
An agency is buying a commercial network appliance. The security team is concerned that tampered hardware or malicious firmware could enter the supply chain. Which action most directly reduces this risk?
- AAccept the lowest bid and rely on the vendor's standard warranty terms for any future problems
- BBuy from the reseller with the largest number of approved vendors so that delivery schedules are more flexible
- CRequire the vendor to document provenance and components, then verify delivered units against that record
- DTest the appliance in a lab before purchase and then never reassess the vendor during the contract period
Show answer and explanationHide answer
Correct answer: CProvenance and component documentation, checked against delivered items, directly addresses tampering and supply chain integrity. Choosing the lowest bid or relying on warranty terms does not verify integrity, and the other options address delivery flexibility or a one-time test with no ongoing vendor review.
Security Planning and Engineering (6 questions)
Question 7
A developer asks for administrative rights on a production database so they can troubleshoot a fault. The security team wants to minimize standing exposure. Which approach best applies least privilege?
- AGive the developer the shared administrator account that the operations team already uses for maintenance
- BAdd the developer to the database administrators group so future troubleshooting requests are handled faster
- CGrant time-limited, scoped access for the specific troubleshooting task, then revoke it when the task ends
- DApprove full access because the developer is already trusted and works on the internal network
Show answer and explanationHide answer
Correct answer: CLeast privilege grants only the access needed for the task and only for as long as it is needed. Permanent group membership, a shared account, and full access based on network location all grant more than the task requires.
Question 8
Which description best captures defense-in-depth?
- AConcentrating all protections at a single strong perimeter firewall so that internal systems need no controls
- BRelying on encryption alone and removing other safeguards to simplify the operational support model
- CDuplicating the same control on every host so that all configurations are identical across the environment
- DLayering several independent controls so that the failure of one does not expose the whole system
Show answer and explanationHide answer
Correct answer: DDefense-in-depth uses multiple, independent layers so an attacker must defeat several controls. A single perimeter, identical duplicated controls, or encryption as the only safeguard do not provide layered protection.
Question 9
During requirements elicitation for a new mission system, which activity best identifies the stakeholder security needs?
- ASelecting the cheapest product on the market and deriving requirements from its published feature list
- BAnalyzing the concept of operations and mission threats with the stakeholders who will use the system
- CWriting the security requirements after the design has been frozen so they match the approved design
- DAsking only the system developers which controls they would prefer to implement in the project
Show answer and explanationHide answer
Correct answer: BStakeholder security needs come from how the mission will operate and what threatens it, so analyzing the concept of operations with the users and mission owners is the right activity. Product features, late requirements, and developer preference do not reflect those needs.
Question 10
Which statement best describes a requirements baseline?
- AA list of every requirement that any stakeholder suggests at any point during the project
- BAn approved, version-controlled set of requirements that changes only through formal change control
- CA draft set of requirements that engineers may update freely as development progresses and needs change
- DThe minimum set of controls a vendor agrees to provide under its standard warranty terms
Show answer and explanationHide answer
Correct answer: BA requirements baseline is an approved reference set managed under change control. A running list of suggestions, warranty terms, or a freely edited draft does not provide the stable reference that a baseline is meant to be.
Question 11
A design team must choose between two encryption architectures. The more secure option adds latency that breaks a mission-critical timing requirement. What is the best next step?
- APick the more secure option regardless of its effect on the mission timing requirement
- BChoose the faster option and close the security concern without any further analysis or review
- CDocument the trade-off, weigh alternatives against criteria, and recommend an option with stakeholder input
- DDefer the decision until the system is in production so its performance can be measured at that point
Show answer and explanationHide answer
Correct answer: CA trade-off study weighs security, performance, and mission criteria across alternatives with stakeholder involvement. Ignoring the timing requirement, dropping the security concern, or deferring the decision until production each skip that analysis.
Question 12
A financial system requires that the same person cannot both create a vendor payment and approve it. Which security principle does this requirement enforce?
- AComplete mediation, which checks every access request against the current authorization
- BLeast common mechanism, which minimizes the number of mechanisms shared among users
- COpen design, which assumes the protection mechanism is publicly known and still effective
- DSeparation of duties, which splits critical steps of a process among different people
Show answer and explanationHide answer
Correct answer: DSeparation of duties splits a critical process among different people so that no one can complete it alone. The other principles concern checking every access, sharing mechanisms, and secrecy of design, and none of them requires splitting a payment across two people.
Risk Management (6 questions)
Question 13
A chief risk officer asks the security team to express system-level risks using the same likelihood and impact scales as the enterprise risk register, so leadership can compare them across the organization. What does this request describe?
- AReplacing the enterprise risk register with a single system-level checklist of technical controls
- BAlignment of system risk assessments with enterprise risk management
- CAccepting every risk whose impact rating falls below the highest level on the scale without review
- DTransferring all system-level risks to a cyber insurance carrier to remove them from the register
Show answer and explanationHide answer
Correct answer: BUsing common scales so system risks can be compared with enterprise risks is alignment with enterprise risk management. Replacing the register, transferring every risk to insurance, or accepting everything below the top rating each break the shared view that the request is trying to create.
Question 14
Which risk response reduces the likelihood or impact of a risk by adding or strengthening controls?
- ATransfer, by shifting the financial consequences of the risk to a third party such as an insurer
- BMitigate, by adding or strengthening controls to lower likelihood or impact
- CAvoid, by removing the activity or condition that creates the risk entirely
- DAccept, by formally acknowledging the remaining risk without taking further action
Show answer and explanationHide answer
Correct answer: BMitigation reduces risk through added or improved controls. Transfer shifts consequences, avoidance removes the activity, and acceptance keeps the risk unchanged, so each of the other options is a different response.
Question 15
A hospital's security assessment finds that a ransomware attack on its scheduling system could delay patient care across several departments. The team states the impact as delayed clinical services. Which kind of risk is being described?
- ARisk to the hardware asset inventory, measured by the replacement cost of the affected devices
- BRisk to the vendor contract, measured by the remaining schedule of payments under that agreement
- CRisk to the source code repository, measured by the number of code lines that could be affected
- DRisk to mission and business operations, measured by the effect on delivered services
Show answer and explanationHide answer
Correct answer: DThe impact is measured in mission and business terms, which is risk to operations. The other options measure risk by asset cost, code volume, or contract payments, and none of them captures the harm to patient care described in the scenario.
Question 16
After security controls have been implemented, which term describes the risk that is still left over?
- AResidual risk, which remains after the implemented controls have been applied
- BTolerance threshold, which is the limit the authorizing official sets for acceptable loss
- CInherent risk, which exists before any controls are applied to the system
- DPrioritized backlog, which orders planned control upgrades by the cost of each upgrade
Show answer and explanationHide answer
Correct answer: AResidual risk is what remains after controls are applied, and it is the basis for the authorization decision. Inherent risk is measured before controls, a tolerance threshold is a limit rather than a risk, and a prioritized backlog is a planning list.
Question 17
An authorizing official is deciding whether to accept the remaining risk in a system's authorization package. Which input is most important to that decision?
- AA vendor's marketing statement claiming the product is unhackable under any normal operating conditions in production
- BA documented risk assessment showing residual risk relative to the organization's risk tolerance
- CThe number of open helpdesk tickets raised by users during the most recent reporting quarter
- DA complete list of every control in the catalog, including those marked as not applicable
Show answer and explanationHide answer
Correct answer: BThe decision to accept risk depends on the residual risk and how it compares with the organization's risk tolerance, as documented in the assessment. Vendor claims, helpdesk volume, and a list of controls with no risk context do not show what risk remains.
Question 18
Which two statements about risk management are accurate? (Choose two.)
- ARisk tolerance is the level of risk an organization considers acceptable
- BContinuous monitoring is required only before a system receives its authorization
- CResidual risk should be reassessed when significant changes affect the system
- DRisk responses are selected once at project start and are never revisited as threats change
- EA risk register should list only risks that have already caused a confirmed security incident
Show answer and explanationHide answer
Correct answer: A, CRisk tolerance defines the acceptable level of risk, and residual risk must be reassessed as the system or threat environment changes. Monitoring continues after authorization, responses are revisited over time, and a register should capture identified risks before they cause incidents.
Systems Security Implementation, Verification and Validation (6 questions)
Question 19
Which statement correctly distinguishes verification from validation?
- AValidation confirms that the code compiles cleanly, while verification confirms that the finished product is free of vulnerabilities
- BVerification is performed only by the vendor during delivery, and validation is performed only by external auditors after launch
- CBoth terms describe the same testing activity, so the two are used interchangeably in contracts, plans, and reports
- DVerification checks that the system meets its specified requirements, while validation checks that it meets stakeholder needs
Show answer and explanationHide answer
Correct answer: DVerification asks whether the system was built to its specifications, and validation asks whether it satisfies the stakeholders' actual needs. The other statements assign the wrong meanings, restrict the activities to certain parties, or treat the two as synonyms.
Question 20
A team wants security checks to run automatically on every code commit, and to block merges that introduce high-severity findings. Which practice does this describe?
- AManual review of release notes by the business owner just before the production deployment window
- BQuarterly penetration tests scheduled on a calendar that operates entirely outside the development pipeline
- CSecurity gates in the CI/CD pipeline that run automated static and dependency analysis before merging
- DAnnual source code audits performed by an external firm after each major software release has shipped
Show answer and explanationHide answer
Correct answer: CAutomated gates in the CI/CD pipeline enforce security checks on every change and can block merges, which is the DevSecOps practice described. Quarterly tests, manual release-note review, and annual audits happen too rarely or too late to block individual commits.
Question 21
Which two elements most directly show that a security test plan covers the system's security requirements? (Choose two.)
- AA traceability matrix linking each security requirement to its test cases
- BExpected results and pass criteria defined in advance for each security test
- CA schedule listing the days on which the testers will be on site
- DA count of the total number of test scripts the team plans to run
- EVendor brochures reviewed by the team during the early design phase
Show answer and explanationHide answer
Correct answer: A, BA traceability matrix shows each requirement is tested, and predefined pass criteria show what a passing result means. A schedule, a script count, and vendor brochures say nothing about whether the security requirements are actually covered.
Question 22
Before a new system goes into operation, the authorizing official reviews test results and the residual risks that remain. What does this step most directly support?
- AFormal stakeholder acceptance and the authorization decision to place the system into operation
- BPermanent removal of audit logging to reduce storage costs for the newly deployed system
- CAutomated patching of every third-party library across the entire production environment before go-live
- DDeveloper self-certification that the code contains no defects and needs no further testing
Show answer and explanationHide answer
Correct answer: AReviewing test results and residual risk supports formal stakeholder acceptance and the authorization decision. Patching is an operational task, removing audit logging weakens accountability, and developer self-certification is not an independent acceptance.
Question 23
During integration, a team finds that a newly added component changes how the access control module handles session tokens. What is the most appropriate action?
- AAssume the new component is safe because it passed its own unit tests during the earlier development stage
- BAccept the change into production now and review its security impact during the next annual audit cycle
- CDisable the access control module until after the release date to avoid delays to the project schedule
- DRe-test the integrated security functions and update the integration documentation before acceptance
Show answer and explanationHide answer
Correct answer: DIntegration can change security behaviour even when components pass alone, so the integrated security functions need re-testing and documentation before acceptance. Assuming safety from unit tests, disabling access control, or deferring review to an audit all leave the changed behaviour unverified.
Question 24
A penetration test environment differs from production in its firewall rules, and the team must report the results. What is the best response?
- ARecord the environment difference as a limitation, and repeat the critical tests in a production-equivalent setting
- BCancel the test and accept the system, since the results would be unreliable for any stakeholder to rely on
- CReport the results as complete, since the environment differences are unlikely to affect the findings in practice
- DTest only the firewall settings in the test environment and skip all application tests to save time on the schedule
Show answer and explanationHide answer
Correct answer: ATest results are only as representative as the environment, so the difference must be disclosed and the critical tests repeated where production controls apply. Reporting the results as complete, cancelling the test, or dropping application tests each hide or discard the evidence needed for acceptance.
Secure Operations, Change Management and Disposal (6 questions)
Question 25
After a system is authorized, the team needs to know whether its security controls remain effective as the system changes over time. Which activity best meets this need?
- AA one-time vulnerability scan performed on the day the system receives its authorization decision
- BStoring all audit logs offline so they do not consume production disk space on the system
- COngoing monitoring of control effectiveness, with periodic reporting to the authorizing official
- DAn annual paperwork review that is archived as soon as the authorization letter has been signed
Show answer and explanationHide answer
Correct answer: CContinuous monitoring checks control effectiveness throughout the system's life and reports changes to the authorizing official. A one-time scan or annual paperwork review cannot show drift, and offline log storage does not assess whether controls work.
Question 26
A system owner plans to upgrade the operating system on a database server. Before the change is approved, what should the security team do?
- ASkip the review because the upgrade is only a minor patch and carries no real security impact
- BApprove the change because the vendor has certified the new operating system version as secure
- CSchedule the change for a weekend so that any security impact goes unnoticed by most users
- DAssess how the change affects security controls, configurations, and the existing risk assessment
Show answer and explanationHide answer
Correct answer: DA change impact assessment examines how an upgrade affects controls, configurations, and the risk assessment before approval. A vendor certification, a weekend window, or assuming the change is harmless bypasses that analysis.
Question 27
A system is being decommissioned, and its storage media will be reused by another department. Which action best protects the data that remains on the media?
- ASanitize the media with a method suited to its sensitivity, such as purging or cryptographic erase
- BDelete the files through the operating system and confirm that the recycle bin has been emptied
- CReformat the drives using the quick format option available in the operating system's disk tools
- DStore the drives in a locked cabinet in the storage room until someone decides what to do with them later on
Show answer and explanationHide answer
Correct answer: ASanitization methods such as purging or cryptographic erase are designed to make recovery of the data infeasible, matched to the sensitivity of the data. Deleting files, quick formatting, and storing the media do not remove the underlying data reliably.
Question 28
Which two actions belong in a secure decommissioning plan for a system that handles regulated data? (Choose two.)
- AExtend the system's maintenance contract for another five years to cover the transition
- BRemove or sanitize stored data and retire the user accounts that still exist on the system
- CAdd new features to the system during the final weeks so that users see some value
- DUpdate the asset inventory and remove the system's network connections and interfaces
- ENegotiating a discount on the replacement system's license fees
Show answer and explanationHide answer
Correct answer: B, DDecommissioning must protect regulated data, close accounts and connections, and keep the inventory accurate. Extending support, adding features, and marketing the replacement do not reduce risk, and some of them add new exposure.
Question 29
A monitoring report shows that failed logins have risen steadily over three months, although no single day crossed the alert threshold. What is the most useful next step?
- AIgnore the trend since no single day crossed the alert threshold during the monitoring period under review
- BWait for the annual assessment to decide whether the trend matters for the system's overall risk posture
- CRaise the alert threshold so that the rising trend stops generating visible noise in the periodic reports
- DAnalyze the trend with the system owner to decide whether the threshold or the activity needs review
Show answer and explanationHide answer
Correct answer: DGradual changes can signal an emerging problem even when no single event crosses a threshold, so the trend should be investigated with the owner. Ignoring it, raising the threshold, or waiting for the annual assessment hides or delays evidence of change.
Question 30
Which statement best describes the purpose of a secure operations plan?
- ATo record the project budget and staffing plan for the development phase of the system before launch
- BTo list the vendor's marketing claims about the system's security features for use during procurement reviews
- CTo document how the system is operated, maintained, and protected day to day, including roles and procedures
- DTo describe the features planned for the system's next major release and the dates when they will launch
Show answer and explanationHide answer
Correct answer: CA secure operations plan records how the system runs, is maintained, and is protected day to day, including roles, procedures, and responsibilities. The other options describe procurement claims, development budgets, or future release features, which are not operational security content.