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Free Certified Associate in Project Management (CAPM) practice test: 30 questions with answers
30 original questions for Certified Associate in Project Management (CAPM), drawn from every topic area. Answer each one to see whether you got it right and why. No sign-up.
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Certified Associate in Project Management (CAPM) exam guide: topics, cost and format
All 30 Certified Associate in Project Management (CAPM) questions with answers
The same questions as the test above, grouped by exam topic. Open any question to see the answer and explanation.
Predictive Methodologies (8 questions)
Question 1
Which factor most favours a predictive (plan-driven) approach over an adaptive one?
- ARequirements are well understood, and they are unlikely to change much
- BThe customer wants to see working increments every two weeks for feedback
- CThe team is new to the domain and needs frequent experiments to learn
- DRequirements are unclear and expected to change frequently during the work
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Correct answer: AA predictive approach works best when requirements are stable and well understood, because the plan can be built up front and changed through formal control. Unclear or changing requirements, frequent feedback needs and domain learning all favour adaptive approaches.
Question 2
Which activity estimates how long each schedule activity will take to complete?
- AControl schedule, which monitors progress against the schedule baseline over time
- BSequence activities, which sets the logical order of the work between tasks
- CEstimate activity durations, using analogous, parametric or three-point techniques
- DDevelop schedule, which produces the baseline dates for the project's work
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Correct answer: CEstimating activity durations assigns a time to each activity, using techniques such as analogous, parametric and three-point estimation. Sequencing sets the order, controlling monitors progress, and developing the schedule combines durations and logic into dates.
Question 3
A risk has a 30 percent probability of occurring and an impact of 50,000. What is its expected monetary value?
- A5,000, which subtracts the probability from the impact
- B15,000, which multiplies the probability by the impact
- C50,000, which ignores the probability entirely in the calculation
- D80,000, which adds the probability to the impact of the risk
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Correct answer: BExpected monetary value multiplies the probability by the impact, so 0.30 times 50,000 gives 15,000. Subtracting or adding the probability to the impact does not measure exposure, and ignoring probability overstates the risk.
Question 4
Which risk response reduces the probability or the impact of a threat?
- AAccept, which means taking no action and leaving the threat in place
- BTransfer, which passes all ownership of the risk to the sponsor entirely
- CEscalate, which passes the risk to a program manager with no action taken
- DMitigate, which reduces the probability or the impact of the threat
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Correct answer: DMitigation reduces the probability or the impact of a threat, for example by adding testing or a second supplier. Acceptance does not reduce the threat, transfer moves the risk to another party such as an insurer, and escalation changes who manages it without addressing it.
Question 5
Which method finds the longest path through the schedule network and therefore sets the shortest possible project duration?
- APareto analysis, which ranks defects by frequency to find the main causes
- BResponsibility assignment matrix, which assigns roles and tasks to each person
- CCritical path method, which finds the longest path through the network
- DFishbone diagram, which maps possible causes of a problem in categories
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Correct answer: CThe critical path method identifies the longest sequence of dependent activities, which determines the shortest possible duration. Pareto analysis, the responsibility matrix and fishbone diagrams are useful tools for quality, roles and root cause analysis but do not calculate the schedule network.
Question 6
Which TWO statements about a risk register are correct? (Choose two.)
- AIt is closed once the project charter has been signed by the sponsor
- BIt records identified risks, their causes and the planned responses
- CIt is updated throughout the project as risks are identified and change
- DIt replaces the issue log so that problems and risks are kept in one list
- EIt is kept only by the sponsor and is never shared with the project team
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Correct answer: B, CThe risk register records identified risks, their causes and planned responses, and it is updated throughout the project. It is not closed at charter signing, it does not replace the issue log, and it should be shared with the team that manages the risks.
Question 7
A project's planned value is 100,000 and its earned value is 80,000. What is the schedule performance index?
- A1.25, which is planned value divided by earned value for the project to date
- B20,000, which is the schedule variance expressed as a positive amount of money
- C0.20, which is the gap between planned and earned value expressed as a ratio
- D0.80, which is earned value divided by planned value for the project to date
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Correct answer: DThe schedule performance index is earned value divided by planned value, here 80,000 over 100,000, which gives 0.80. An index below 1 means the project is behind schedule. Dividing the other way gives 1.25, and the variance of minus 20,000 is an amount, not an index.
Question 8
Which procurement document is a formal request sent to potential suppliers that asks them to propose how they would deliver a defined need?
- AA bill of materials, which lists the parts needed to build the finished product in full
- BA purchase order, which authorises payment once the goods have been delivered in full
- CA request for proposal, which asks suppliers to propose how they would deliver the need
- DA service-level agreement, which sets the standards a supplier must meet after signing
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Correct answer: CA request for proposal invites suppliers to propose a solution, approach and price for a defined need, so the buyer can compare them. A purchase order authorises payment, a service-level agreement sets performance standards after a contract is signed, and a bill of materials lists components.
Agile (8 questions)
Question 9
In Scrum, who owns the product backlog and orders its items by value?
- AThe project sponsor, who approves the budget for each sprint in advance
- BThe Product Owner, who orders the product backlog by value to the business
- CThe Scrum Master, who coaches the team on how to use the framework
- DThe development team, which decides the backlog order each day on its own
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Correct answer: BThe Product Owner is accountable for the product backlog, including ordering items to maximise value. The Scrum Master coaches the process, the sponsor funds the work, and the development team selects work from the backlog but does not own its order.
Question 10
Which Scrum event is a 15-minute, timeboxed meeting in which developers plan the next day's work?
- ADaily Scrum, a 15-minute event where developers plan the next day's work
- BSprint review, which inspects the increment with stakeholders at sprint end
- CSprint retrospective, which reviews how the team worked during the sprint
- DSprint planning, which sets the sprint goal and the work for the sprint ahead
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Correct answer: AThe Daily Scrum is a 15-minute event where developers inspect progress toward the sprint goal and plan the next 24 hours. The sprint review, retrospective and sprint planning are different events with different purposes and timeboxes.
Question 11
A Kanban team sees many items stuck in the testing column. Which practice addresses the bottleneck most directly?
- ARemoving the testing column because the team believes the work is already done
- BSetting a work-in-progress limit on the testing column to expose the bottleneck
- CAdding more items to the backlog so that the testing column has more to do
- DAssigning each stuck item to the sponsor so that the item moves forward faster
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Correct answer: BA work-in-progress limit on the testing column stops more work entering it than can be handled, which makes the bottleneck visible and forces the team to resolve it. Adding work worsens the queue, removing testing hides the problem, and assigning work to the sponsor does not improve flow.
Question 12
Which Scrum artefact contains the sprint goal, the selected product backlog items and the plan for delivering the increment?
- AProduct backlog, which lists all known desired work ordered by value
- BProduct increment, which is the sum of all completed backlog items to date
- CSprint backlog, which holds the sprint goal and the plan for the increment
- DBurndown chart, which tracks the remaining work across the sprint
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Correct answer: CThe sprint backlog holds the sprint goal, the selected items and the plan the developers use to deliver the increment. The product backlog is the wider list of desired work, the increment is the output, and the burndown chart is an information radiator.
Question 13
A customer wants early evidence that a new feature is useful before the full solution is built. Which practice provides this best?
- ABuilding a minimum viable product or prototype and reviewing it with the customer
- BWriting the full requirements document in detail before any coding begins at all
- CDelaying all demonstrations until the final release date for one full review
- DTesting the feature only after the whole project has been delivered to the customer
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Correct answer: BA minimum viable product or prototype gives the customer something to try early, so feedback can shape the rest of the work. A detailed document before coding, delayed demonstrations and testing after delivery all delay the learning the customer needs.
Question 14
Which THREE are Scrum events or accountabilities? (Choose three.)
- ASprint review
- BProject steering committee
- CDaily Scrum
- DChange control board meeting
- ESprint retrospective
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Correct answer: A, C, EThe sprint review, the Daily Scrum and the sprint retrospective are Scrum events. The project steering committee and the change control board are governance bodies from predictive project management, not Scrum events.
Question 15
In Scrum, which role ensures the team follows the framework and removes impediments that block its progress?
- AThe Product Owner, who decides the technical design of each feature in the product
- BThe project manager, who assigns every task to a developer on the team each day
- CThe stakeholder group, which approves each change to the sprint backlog in advance
- DThe Scrum Master, who coaches the team and removes impediments to progress
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Correct answer: DThe Scrum Master is accountable for the framework being understood and followed, and for removing impediments. The Product Owner manages value and the backlog, the development team owns the technical approach, and stakeholders provide input rather than approving every change.
Question 16
A team uses story points to estimate work. Which measure tracks how many story points the team completes per sprint, to help forecast future sprints?
- ABurnout rate, which measures the hours each person worked above the normal week
- BVelocity, the average of completed story points across recent sprints
- CLead time, which measures the number of calendar days a new idea takes to start
- DEscape rate, which counts the defects found by customers after each release
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Correct answer: BVelocity is the average amount of work the team completes per sprint, and it helps forecast how much fits in future sprints. Burnout, lead time and escape rate measure other things and are not forecasting measures for story points.
Fundamentals and Core Concepts (7 questions)
Question 17
Which statement best distinguishes a project from ongoing operations?
- AA project has a defined start and end and creates a unique product, service or result
- BOperations are temporary and unique, while projects repeat the same output each cycle
- CProjects are measured only by budget, while operations are measured only by scope
- DOperations end when the product is delivered, and projects continue indefinitely afterwards
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Correct answer: AA project is temporary, with a defined beginning and end, and it produces a unique product, service or result. Operations are ongoing and repeat outputs, so the reversed statement is wrong. Budget and scope do not define the difference, and operations do not end at delivery.
Question 18
Which document describes the reasons for a project, its expected benefits and the investment decision behind it?
- AProject charter, which formally authorises the project and names the project manager
- BBusiness case, which justifies the investment and the expected benefits of the project
- CRisk register, which records threats and opportunities together with planned responses
- DStakeholder register, which lists everyone who can affect or be affected by the project
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Correct answer: BThe business case explains why the organisation should invest, what benefits are expected and whether the work is worth doing. The project charter authorises the work, and the stakeholder and risk registers track people and uncertainty rather than the justification for funding.
Question 19
A senior executive has high power over the project but shows little interest in its day-to-day details. Which engagement approach is most appropriate?
- AKeep satisfied, with periodic updates that focus on decisions and outcomes
- BMonitor only, with no planned contact at any point during the project lifecycle
- CKeep informed with a weekly newsletter sent to every person on the project
- DManage closely with daily one-to-one meetings to review every detail of the work
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Correct answer: AA stakeholder with high power and low interest should be kept satisfied, with concise updates that focus on what they need to decide. Monitoring alone risks surprising a powerful person, and daily meetings overload someone who has little interest in the detail.
Question 20
A team member wants a change added to the scope, and the project manager must decide how to evaluate it. Which process reviews requests and their impact on the project?
- APlan scope management, which defines how the scope will be documented and controlled
- BValidate scope, which formally accepts completed deliverables from the customer
- CClose project or phase, which archives the documents and records lessons learned
- DPerform integrated change control, which reviews change requests and their impact
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Correct answer: DPerform integrated change control is the process that reviews each change request, assesses its impact across the project and decides whether to approve it. Planning how scope is managed, accepting deliverables and closing work are different processes.
Question 21
The project is behind its planned schedule. Which calculation gives the schedule variance?
- AEarned value minus planned value, which shows whether work is ahead or behind
- BActual cost minus earned value, which is the cost overrun to date
- CPlanned value divided by earned value, which gives the schedule performance index
- DBudget at completion minus estimate at completion, which gives the final variance
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Correct answer: ASchedule variance equals earned value minus planned value, so a negative result means the project is behind schedule. Actual cost minus earned value is cost variance, dividing planned value by earned value inverts the schedule performance index, and the last calculation is the expected final variance.
Question 22
A team lists every deliverable and breaks it into smaller components so that all required work is visible. What is this structure called?
- AWork breakdown structure, which decomposes deliverables into smaller work components
- BCritical path analysis, which orders activities by their longest sequence of dependencies
- CResource histogram, which shows the staffing level for each team by week
- DRisk breakdown structure, which lists risks by category and by their source
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Correct answer: AA work breakdown structure is a hierarchical decomposition of the project's deliverables into smaller components, which makes the full scope visible. Critical path analysis, risk breakdowns and resource histograms are useful tools, but none of them decomposes the scope of work.
Question 23
Which document is created early in the project, formally authorises the project and names the project manager?
- AProject management plan, which integrates all the subsidiary management plans
- BProject charter, which formally authorises the project and names the manager
- CWork breakdown structure, which decomposes the scope into work packages
- DLessons learned register, which records what the team learned during the work
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Correct answer: BThe project charter formally authorises the project, gives the project manager authority and summarises the high-level requirements and objectives. The management plan is developed afterwards, the WBS follows from the scope, and the lessons learned register is maintained throughout the project rather than created as an authorisation.
Business Analysis (7 questions)
Question 24
Which technique gathers requirements by observing users while they perform their daily work?
- ABenchmarking, which compares the organisation with competitors' products
- BBrainstorming, which generates ideas in a group without evaluating them yet
- CJob shadowing, which observes users performing their daily work in context
- DDocument analysis, which reviews existing policies, forms and reports in detail
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Correct answer: CObservation, often called job shadowing, reveals how work is really done, including workarounds that users may not mention in an interview. Benchmarking, brainstorming and document analysis are useful elicitation or analysis techniques, but none of them observes the user at work.
Question 25
Which artefact links each requirement to the design element, test case and delivered feature that implement it?
- AStakeholder engagement plan, which records communication needs and frequency
- BRequirements traceability matrix, which links each requirement to tests and deliverables
- CRisk burndown chart, which shows the trend of overall risk exposure over time
- DIssue log, which records problems that need an owner and a resolution
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Correct answer: CA requirements traceability matrix links each requirement to its design, tests and delivered features, which shows coverage and the impact of a change. The engagement plan, issue log and risk burndown each track a different kind of information.
Question 26
A business analyst must choose between three solution options against weighted criteria such as cost, risk and benefit. Which activity supports this decision?
- ARequirements elicitation, which gathers needs from stakeholders through interviews
- BSchedule compression, which shortens the timeline by adding more resources to it
- CRisk identification, which lists threats to the project before the work starts
- DDecision analysis, which compares options against weighted criteria to choose one
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Correct answer: DDecision analysis compares options against agreed, weighted criteria to support a choice that can be explained to stakeholders. Elicitation gathers needs rather than choosing among options, risk identification lists threats, and schedule compression is a schedule technique.
Question 27
Which element of a business case shows expected costs, benefits and return over the period of the investment?
- ASprint review notes that summarise the comments made by stakeholders that day
- BTeam charter that defines the ground rules for meetings and working agreements
- CChange log that records each modification approved to the project documents
- DFinancial analysis that shows the costs, benefits and return over the investment period
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Correct answer: DThe financial analysis in a business case sets out costs, benefits and return over time so the investment can be judged. A team charter, change log and review notes are project documents that support delivery rather than justify the investment.
Question 28
Which type of requirement describes conditions the solution must meet, such as performance, security or availability, rather than what it does?
- ATransition requirements, which describe the cutover to a new system only
- BBusiness rules, which define how a calculation or decision must be made
- CFunctional requirements, which describe the specific behaviour users expect
- DNon-functional requirements, such as performance, security or availability
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Correct answer: DNon-functional requirements set quality attributes such as performance, security and availability, while functional requirements describe behaviour. Transition requirements cover the move to the new solution, and business rules define logic rather than quality conditions.
Question 29
During interviews, a business analyst finds two stakeholders with conflicting requirements for the same process. What should the analyst do next?
- AChoose the requirement from the most senior person and move on immediately
- BDrop both conflicting requirements from the scope without any further discussion
- CFacilitate a workshop with the stakeholders to resolve the conflict and agree a decision
- DRecord both requirements unchanged and let the testing phase reveal which one works
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Correct answer: CA facilitated workshop brings the affected stakeholders together to understand the conflict, weigh the options and agree on a decision that is recorded. Picking the senior person's view skips the analysis, dropping both leaves a real need unmet, and deferring to testing wastes time.
Question 30
Which TWO are elicitation techniques? (Choose two.)
- AEarned value analysis
- BInterviews with key users and subject matter experts
- CCritical path analysis
- DMonte Carlo simulation of the schedule
- EWorkshops with stakeholders to agree needs
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Correct answer: B, EInterviews and facilitated workshops are two of the most common ways to elicit requirements from stakeholders. Earned value, critical path analysis and Monte Carlo schedule simulation are planning and analysis techniques used in other areas.