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Free PMI-RMP practice test: 30 questions with answers
30 original questions for PMI Risk Management Professional (PMI-RMP), drawn from every topic area. Answer each one to see whether you got it right and why. No sign-up.
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All 30 PMI-RMP questions with answers
The same questions as the test above, grouped by exam topic. Open any question to see the answer and explanation.
Risk Identification (6 questions)
Question 1
A team of specialists in several countries must identify risks for a new bridge project. The sponsor wants to limit the influence of the most senior engineer and reduce anchoring bias. Which identification technique is most suitable?
- AA series of one-to-one interviews, all conducted by the sponsor, with each specialist reporting risks
- BA review of the risk register from the previous project, adopted as the current list of risks
- COpen group brainstorming in a single session led by the most senior engineer on the team
- DDelphi technique, using anonymous questionnaire rounds with summarized results shared between rounds
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Correct answer: DThe Delphi technique gathers expert input anonymously over several rounds, which limits dominance and anchoring. A brainstorm led by the senior engineer invites domination, sponsor-led interviews add the sponsor's bias, and reusing an old register does not identify risks specific to this bridge.
Question 2
Which statement about assumption and constraint analysis is correct?
- AIt is performed only after the risk register is closed, to confirm the final list of risks
- BIt tests whether project assumptions hold and identifies risks that arise if they prove false
- CIt turns every assumption into a confirmed fact so that no further risk analysis is needed
- DIt replaces the need for a risk breakdown structure when the team is identifying risks
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Correct answer: BAssumption and constraint analysis examines whether the assumptions and constraints behind the plan are valid, and it surfaces risks that would arise if they are wrong. Performing it at closure, replacing a breakdown structure, or treating assumptions as facts are all incorrect uses of the technique.
Question 3
A construction project's risk register lists the risk 'steel supplier delivers late.' The risk manager wants an early warning that this risk is becoming real. Which item is the best risk trigger?
- AThe supplier reports that its production capacity has dropped below what scheduled deliveries need
- BThe number of drawings released to the design team in the previous week for review
- CThe steel price per tonne reported in the monthly finance summary for the whole portfolio
- DThe number of change requests approved by the steering committee during the last quarter
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Correct answer: AA trigger is an observable sign that a specific risk is occurring or about to occur, and reduced supplier capacity directly signals late delivery. Price, drawing counts and change request figures may matter for other purposes but are not direct signs of this particular delay.
Question 4
The risk management plan says any risk whose exposure crosses the agreed limit must be escalated. One risk has just crossed the limit, but its owner says it is still manageable. What should the risk manager do?
- ARemove the risk from the register, since the owner considers it manageable for the team
- BWait for the next monthly review before taking any action on the risk at all
- CRaise the limit so the risk falls below it, which keeps the owner's assessment in place
- DEscalate the risk, because the agreed limit has been crossed regardless of the owner's opinion
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Correct answer: DA threshold is an agreed boundary, and once it is crossed the plan requires escalation, which does not depend on the owner's view. Waiting, moving the limit after the fact, or dropping the risk each bypass the agreed governance.
Question 5
A team member is building the risk register for an ERP implementation. Which set of entries should each identified risk have so it can be analyzed and monitored?
- AThe risk title and the name of the team member who first raised it in a meeting
- BThe final approved budget for the risk and the contract number of the responsible vendor
- CRisk description, cause, owner, current status and the response planned or in progress
- DThe full text of the sponsor's risk appetite statement, copied into every single entry
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Correct answer: CA usable register entry records what the risk is, why it exists, who owns it, where it stands and how it will be addressed, which supports analysis and monitoring. A title with a name, budget and contract data, or a copied appetite statement, leaves out the information needed.
Question 6
Which TWO items should appear in the risk register after risk identification? (Choose two.)
- AThe definitions of the probability and impact scales used for scoring
- BRisk descriptions together with the name of the assigned risk owner
- CThe organization's written statement of its overall appetite for risk
- DThe early warning signs that indicate each identified risk may be occurring
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Correct answer: B, DThe register records each identified risk with its description, owner, and triggers or early warning signs. Scale definitions belong in the risk management plan, and the organization's appetite statement is a governance document that the register may reference but does not contain.
Risk Analysis (6 questions)
Question 7
A team scored twelve risks on a five-point probability scale and a five-point impact scale. Two risks have the same score, but one must be addressed within three weeks and the other not before six months. Which qualitative factor should separate their priority?
- AExpected monetary value, calculated from the probability and impact of each risk
- BUrgency, meaning the time available before a response must start to be effective
- CThe number of stakeholders who mentioned each risk during the identification workshops
- DThe Monte Carlo result showing the spread of possible cost outcomes for each risk
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Correct answer: BUrgency, often considered together with proximity, reflects how soon a response is needed and is a qualitative prioritization factor. Expected monetary value and simulation results are quantitative measures, and the number of stakeholders mentioning a risk says nothing about its effect on objectives.
Question 8
Which statement correctly contrasts qualitative and quantitative risk analysis?
- AQuantitative analysis always precedes qualitative analysis and makes the qualitative ranking unnecessary
- BQuantitative analysis is required for every risk on every project, regardless of its size or scope
- CQualitative analysis ranks risks using scales and expert judgment, while quantitative analysis models their numerical effect on objectives
- DQualitative analysis calculates expected monetary value for each risk using probability and impact data
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Correct answer: CQualitative analysis prioritizes risks through assessment of probability, impact and other attributes, while quantitative analysis numerically models effects on objectives. The sequencing, EMV and universal-requirement statements each mislabel the techniques or overstate when quantitative analysis is needed.
Question 9
A risk has a 20 percent probability of occurring. If it occurs, the impact is 50,000 currency units. What is the expected monetary value of this risk?
- A2,500
- B10,000
- C70,000
- D250,000
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Correct answer: BExpected monetary value equals probability multiplied by impact, so 0.20 multiplied by 50,000 gives 10,000. The other figures result from miscalculating the product, such as using the wrong probability or adding figures instead of multiplying them.
Question 10
A project team runs a Monte Carlo simulation on schedule risks. Which output should the team use to communicate the confidence of meeting a completion date?
- AThe single most likely completion date taken from the baseline schedule without any changes
- BA list of risk owners ranked by their seniority within the project organization chart
- CA distribution of possible completion dates with the probability of finishing by each date
- DA color-coded probability and impact matrix that scores each risk on the register
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Correct answer: CA Monte Carlo simulation produces a distribution of outcomes, and the probability of meeting each date is what conveys schedule confidence. The baseline date alone hides the spread of outcomes, while owner rankings and a qualitative matrix are not simulation outputs.
Question 11
Which TWO techniques are quantitative risk analysis techniques? (Choose two.)
- AProbability and impact matrix used to rate each risk
- BMonte Carlo simulation of cost or schedule outcomes
- CRisk urgency assessment used to prioritize the register
- DExpected monetary value calculation for each risk event
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Correct answer: B, DMonte Carlo simulation and expected monetary value both model the numerical effects of risk on objectives, so they are quantitative. The probability and impact matrix and the urgency assessment are qualitative ranking techniques that rely on scales and judgment.
Question 12
A cost model shows that total project cost is most sensitive to exchange rates, followed by labor rates and then material prices. The team wants a chart that ranks each input by how much it moves the result. Which chart fits?
- AA burndown chart that tracks remaining story points against the planned sprint timeline
- BA tornado diagram that displays each input's effect on the result as horizontal bars
- CA control chart that plots each sample against upper and lower limits over time
- DA histogram that counts the number of times each vendor was used in the project
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Correct answer: BA tornado diagram from sensitivity analysis ranks inputs by their effect on an outcome, with the most influential at the top. Burndown, control and vendor-count histograms do not show how sensitive a result is to its inputs.
Risk Strategy and Planning (6 questions)
Question 13
A project sponsor tells the risk manager that the team should avoid all risk on the new platform. Before thresholds are set, the risk manager needs the term that describes how much risk the organization is willing to pursue or retain. Which term fits?
- ARisk tolerance, the degree of variation from an objective that stakeholders can withstand
- BRisk threshold, the boundary of exposure above which a risk must be acted upon
- CRisk appetite, the amount and type of risk the organization will accept to pursue value
- DRisk register, the document that records each identified risk and its planned response
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Correct answer: CRisk appetite describes the broad amount and type of risk an organization is willing to pursue or retain. Risk tolerance is the variation around a specific objective, a threshold is a boundary that triggers action, and a risk register is a document, so none of them states the organization's overall willingness to take risk.
Question 14
During preliminary document analysis for a new billing system, the risk manager reviews lessons learned from two earlier billing projects. Which finding from that review is most useful for shaping the new project's risk strategy?
- AThe final budget totals of the earlier projects, used to set this project's contingency reserve directly
- BCopies of the earlier risk registers, adopted without any changes for the new project
- CRecurring risk events on similar work and which responses worked or failed in practice
- DThe performance ratings of the earlier project managers, used to choose who owns each risk
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Correct answer: CLessons learned show which risk events recur on similar work and how responses performed, which tailors the strategy to real evidence. Budget totals do not reveal risk drivers, copying registers unchanged ignores the new context, and manager ratings are not a basis for risk strategy.
Question 15
A project team is building its risk management plan. The sponsor suggests waiting until the risk register is complete before deciding how much risk the project may accept. What should the risk manager do?
- AWait for the complete risk register, since acceptable risk can only be derived from the list of risks
- BConfirm the organization's risk appetite and thresholds with the sponsor now, before analysis begins
- CLet each work package lead set individual thresholds for the risks in their own area of the project
- DReuse the thresholds from the last project, because thresholds rarely change between projects at all
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Correct answer: BRisk appetite and thresholds should be confirmed with the sponsor early so that identification and analysis apply the same limits. Waiting for the register reverses that logic, individual thresholds lead to inconsistent decisions, and reusing old thresholds ignores the new project's objectives.
Question 16
A risk manager is documenting the risk management plan for a construction program. Which item belongs in the plan rather than in the risk register?
- AThe definitions of probability and impact scales and the probability-impact matrix to use
- BThe agreed response actions for a single identified threat to the steel delivery schedule
- CThe status and date of the latest review for a particular risk on the electrical work
- DThe current probability score and owner for one specific risk on the foundation work
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Correct answer: AThe plan sets the approach used across the whole project, including the scales and matrix used for scoring. The register holds the details of individual risks such as their scores, owners, responses and status, so the other options belong in the register.
Question 17
A project manager must run the first risk workshop for an ERP upgrade. Stakeholders disagree about how much schedule delay is acceptable. Which action best leads the risk activity with these stakeholders?
- AAsk the most senior stakeholder to decide the risks quickly so the workshop finishes early
- BHold private talks with the sponsor, then present the final risk list to the other stakeholders
- CExclude stakeholder views on risk attitude, since the project team owns all risk decisions
- DFacilitate a structured session where each stakeholder states concerns and the group agrees on shared definitions
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Correct answer: DLeading risk activities means engaging stakeholders in a structured way so that differing risk attitudes are surfaced and reconciled with shared definitions. Deferring to one senior stakeholder, bypassing the others, or excluding stakeholder views each undermine that engagement.
Question 18
A company plans to launch a payment feature in a market where a new data protection law is expected next year. During the environment assessment, which factor should the risk manager document first?
- AThe internal meeting schedule the team currently follows for its weekly status reviews
- BThe historical cost of the marketing campaign used for the product in an earlier launch
- CThe physical location of the vendor's support office that answers platform support tickets
- DExpected regulatory changes that could create threats or opportunities for the project
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Correct answer: DAn environment assessment looks at external and internal conditions, including regulatory changes, that can create threats or opportunities. The meeting schedule, past campaign cost and vendor office location do not shape the project's risk exposure in the same way an expected legal change does.
Monitor and Close Risks (6 questions)
Question 19
A risk owner reports that a key vendor's on-time deliveries have declined for three consecutive months, but the register has not changed. What is the best next step?
- AWait until the vendor contract ends before reviewing the delivery data for the project
- BAsk the sponsor to raise the risk appetite so that the declining trend can be accepted without action
- CClose the vendor delivery risk, since the vendor is outside the project team's responsibility
- DAnalyze the delivery performance trend and update the affected risk entries and their ratings
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Correct answer: DPerformance data and trends should be analyzed and used to update risk entries and ratings, which keeps the register current. Waiting, closing the risk because of vendor ownership, or raising appetite to accept the trend each avoid the required reassessment.
Question 20
A team adds a second supplier to reduce the risk of depending on a single source. The second supplier's parts must be integrated with the first, creating a new integration risk that did not exist before. How should the integration risk be classified?
- AA secondary risk, arising directly from the response chosen for the original risk
- BAn accepted risk, which the team has decided to take no further action on
- CA residual risk, meaning the original risk that remains after the response is applied
- DAn emerging risk, meaning one that could not have been identified at project start
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Correct answer: AA secondary risk is a new risk that arises as a direct result of a risk response. Residual risk is the remaining original risk, accepted risks are a response choice, and emerging risks become visible later, whereas this one follows directly from the chosen response.
Question 21
Which TWO activities are part of monitoring project risk levels? (Choose two.)
- AReviewing risk trends and variance data against the agreed risk thresholds
- BRe-scoring risks when new information changes their probability or impact
- CRewriting the risk management plan from the start at every status meeting
- DReplacing the scoring method with a new one each month to keep the team engaged
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Correct answer: A, BMonitoring project risk levels involves comparing trend and variance data with thresholds and updating scores when information changes. Rewriting the plan at every meeting or changing the scoring method each month are not monitoring activities and would undermine consistent tracking.
Question 22
At the close of a project phase, the team finds that several risks no longer apply and that two useful lessons were learned. Which documents should be updated?
- AThe organization's enterprise risk policy, which governs all projects across the portfolio
- BThe project charter and the signed vendor contract
- CThe risk register and the lessons learned register
- DThe procurement strategy and the stakeholder engagement plan for the current phase
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Correct answer: CClosing irrelevant risks and recording lessons belongs in the risk register and the lessons learned register. The charter, contracts, enterprise policy and other plans are not changed by routine risk closure, so updating them here is not the expected action.
Question 23
A risk audit samples several register entries and finds that the agreed responses were not carried out. What is the most appropriate action?
- ADocument the non-compliance and take corrective action so that the agreed responses are implemented
- BRemove those risks from the register, since their responses were not carried out as planned
- CChange the organization's risk appetite so that it matches what the team has actually done
- DAsk the audit team to rate each risk instead, so that the project team is no longer involved
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Correct answer: AA risk audit identifies gaps between planned and actual responses, and the right action is to record them and correct the execution. Removing risks hides exposure, changing appetite to match practice reverses governance, and excluding the project team from ratings is not an improvement.
Question 24
A project has used 40 percent of its contingency reserve, but only 15 percent of the planned work is complete. Identified risks still carry significant exposure. What does this suggest, and what should the team do?
- AThe reserve is healthy, so the team should release the excess reserve to the sponsor without any review of the remaining exposure or the schedule
- BThe reserve is adequate because spending part of it early shows the team is ahead of its risk plan
- CThe reserve has no link to risk, so the team should stop tracking it and rely on the schedule instead
- DReserve use is running ahead of progress, so the team should re-analyze the remaining exposure and update the reserve forecast
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Correct answer: DReserve analysis compares reserve used and remaining with the remaining risk exposure and progress, and here spending is ahead of progress, which signals a shortfall risk. Releasing reserve without review, treating early spending as success or dropping the reserve from tracking each misread the signal.
Risk Response (6 questions)
Question 25
A project manager buys an insurance policy that pays for replacement costs if a specialized test component fails during commissioning. Which threat response strategy is this?
- AMitigate the threat by reducing its probability or impact through design changes
- BTransfer the threat to a third party by buying insurance coverage for the loss
- CAvoid the threat by changing the plan so the specialized component is not needed
- DAccept the threat and hold a contingency reserve to cover any loss that occurs
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Correct answer: BBuying insurance shifts the financial impact of the threat to another party, which is transfer. Design changes that lower likelihood or consequence are mitigation, removing the need for the component is avoidance, and holding a reserve is acceptance.
Question 26
A team learns that a supplier could deliver early at no extra cost if the design is released sooner. The team assigns its best engineer to make sure the early release happens, so the opportunity is no longer uncertain. Which opportunity response is this?
- AEnhance, raising the likelihood or size of the benefit without making it certain
- BShare, passing part of the benefit to a partner that is better placed to capture it
- CAccept, taking no action and letting the opportunity occur or not by chance
- DExploit, taking steps so that the opportunity is certain to occur
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Correct answer: DExploit means acting to make an opportunity certain, which is what the engineer assignment does. Enhance only raises the chance or size of the benefit, share hands part of the benefit to another party, and accept takes no action, so none matches the described response.
Question 27
The response plan for an unstable software release includes both a contingency plan and a fallback plan. Which statement describes the fallback plan?
- AA plan executed when the contingency plan does not remove the effect of the risk
- BA set of extra tasks added to the schedule as a routine practice on every release
- CA plan the team activates before the risk event has any chance of occurring at all
- DA replacement for the risk register that tracks the status of each release risk
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Correct answer: AA contingency plan is executed when a trigger shows that the risk has occurred, and a fallback plan is used if the contingency plan proves insufficient. The other statements describe preventive work, routine scheduling or a register substitute, none of which is a fallback plan.
Question 28
A proposed mitigation for a risk costs more than the expected monetary value of the risk it addresses. The sponsor asks for it anyway, saying the team should leave no risk unaddressed. What is the best approach?
- AImplement the mitigation regardless of its cost, since the sponsor's instruction overrides the analysis
- BDelay the decision until the risk materializes, then choose whichever response is cheapest at that time
- CDrop all responses to the risk, since no response that costs anything more than zero can ever be justified by the analysis
- DShow that the mitigation costs more than the risk's expected value, and select a more cost-effective response
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Correct answer: DA response should be justified by its benefit relative to the risk's expected value, so the team should show the cost mismatch and choose a more cost-effective option. Implementing blindly, dropping all responses or waiting until the event occurs each ignore sound response selection.
Question 29
The team has agreed on a risk response that would add two weeks of testing and change the test scope. What should happen before the response is implemented?
- AThe risk owner approves the response alone, since the response only affects the risk register itself
- BThe team starts the testing change immediately, and the schedule is updated at the next monthly review
- CThe schedule and scope changes go through change control so that they are reviewed and approved
- DThe response is recorded in the register and procurement is informed, with no review of the scope
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Correct answer: CA response that changes schedule and scope alters the project baseline, so it should be processed through change control before implementation. Approving it only in the register, starting work first or skipping the scope review each bypass that governance.
Question 30
Which statement correctly distinguishes contingency reserves from management reserves?
- AContingency reserves are never used on projects, since the schedule baseline already includes buffers for all risks
- BManagement reserves are set for each identified risk, while contingency reserves cover risks that nobody has named yet
- CBoth reserves are held by the risk owner, so either can be released without any approval from the sponsor
- DContingency reserves cover identified risks, while management reserves cover unidentified risks
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Correct answer: DContingency reserves are held for identified risks that have planned responses, while management reserves address unidentified risks and are controlled at a higher level. The reversed definitions and the claim that contingency reserves are never used are both incorrect.