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Free Project Management Professional (PMP) practice test: 30 questions with answers
30 original questions for Project Management Professional (PMP), drawn from every topic area. Answer each one to see whether you got it right and why. No sign-up.
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Project Management Professional (PMP) exam guide: topics, cost and format
All 30 Project Management Professional (PMP) questions with answers
The same questions as the test above, grouped by exam topic. Open any question to see the answer and explanation.
Process (10 questions)
Question 1
A predictive project is behind schedule, and the sponsor wants a recovery plan. Which technique should the project manager use to compare schedule options?
- ACrashing or fast-tracking, comparing each option's cost and risk
- BEarned value analysis at the portfolio level only, without schedule detail
- CResource levelling that leaves the critical path unchanged
- DRe-baselining the schedule without analysing the causes of the slip
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Correct answer: ASchedule compression, through crashing or fast-tracking, shortens the critical path, and comparing each option's added cost and risk lets the sponsor choose. Portfolio-level earned value does not show schedule options for this project. Levelling smooths resources without shortening the path, and re-baselining without analysis hides the cause.
Question 2
In a Scrum team, the sprint goal is at risk on day six of a ten-day sprint. What should the team do?
- AAdd a new team member in the middle of the sprint to increase capacity immediately
- BExtend the sprint by two days without telling the product owner, to protect the goal
- CDiscuss the risk at the daily stand-up, and re-scope items together to keep the goal achievable
- DCancel the sprint and start a new one with a larger goal, so that the team has more time
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Correct answer: CScrum teams manage sprint risk together, and re-scoping items while keeping the goal visible is the team's own decision. Extending the sprint breaks the timebox, and adding people mid-sprint slows the team as they ramp up. Cancelling is reserved for cases where the goal has become invalid, not for a risk on day six.
Question 3
A risk has a low probability but a very high impact on a fixed-date launch, and it cannot be avoided. Which response is most appropriate?
- AIgnore it, since the probability is low and the team has other priorities
- BRemove the launch date entirely, so that the risk cannot affect the schedule
- CAssign the risk to the team's most experienced member, and close the register entry
- DCreate a contingency response that activates if the risk occurs
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Correct answer: DA contingency response prepares the team to act if the low-probability event happens, which limits the damage to the launch. Ignoring a high-impact risk leaves the launch exposed, and removing the date is not a realistic response. Assigning the risk to one person and closing it does not plan a response at all.
Question 4
A hybrid project must deliver a component whose requirements are still uncertain. Which delivery approach best fits this component?
- AA fixed scope and one large release, after all the design work has been completed in full
- BIterative delivery with short feedback cycles, so that requirements are refined with users
- CA single contract with a fixed price for the entire component, signed before any design work begins
- DA detailed plan for every requirement, approved by the sponsor before any development is started
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Correct answer: BIterative delivery with short feedback cycles suits uncertain requirements, because each iteration produces evidence that shapes the next. A fixed scope and a single release assume the requirements are already known. Fixed-price contracts and complete upfront plans assume the same certainty.
Question 5
A stakeholder asks for a scope change after the baseline has been approved. What should the project manager do FIRST?
- AImplement the change, since the sponsor agreed to it informally in a corridor conversation
- BAdd the change to the backlog without assessing it, so that it is considered in the next planning session
- CReject the change without documenting it, to keep the project on schedule for the approved baseline
- DAssess the change's impact on scope, schedule, cost and risk, then submit it to change control
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Correct answer: DAssessing impact and submitting the change to change control gives the decision makers the information needed to approve or reject it. An informal agreement bypasses the governance process. Rejecting without documentation and backlog additions without assessment both leave the baseline and its risks unmanaged.
Question 6
At the midpoint of a project, 60 percent of the schedule has elapsed, but only 40 percent of the planned work is complete. Which metric shows this?
- AEstimate at completion equal to the budget at completion
- BCost performance index above 1.0
- CSchedule performance index below 1.0
- DVariance at completion equal to zero
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Correct answer: CA schedule performance index below 1.0 means earned value is lower than planned value, so the project is behind schedule. A cost performance index above 1.0 says nothing about schedule, and a zero variance at completion or an estimate equal to budget would indicate the project is on plan.
Question 7
Which estimating technique uses optimistic, most likely and pessimistic values, weighted to produce an expected duration?
- AAnalogous estimating, which uses the duration of a similar past project as the basis
- BParametric estimating, which multiplies a unit rate by the quantity of work
- CThree-point estimating, using optimistic, most likely and pessimistic values for each activity
- DBottom-up estimating only, which adds up the estimates for every work package
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Correct answer: CThree-point estimating uses optimistic, most likely and pessimistic values and weights them, which produces an expected value with a range. Analogous and parametric estimating use reference data rather than a range of values, and bottom-up estimating adds up detail without showing a range for each activity.
Question 8
A hybrid project has a predictive plan for the overall program, but one workstream delivers iterative features. Which artefact best tracks the work for that workstream?
- AA Gantt chart only, since the overall plan is predictive
- BA product backlog for the iterative workstream, ordered by value
- CA risk register, which lists the threats and opportunities for the program
- DA work breakdown structure with no iterations, which lists deliverables once
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Correct answer: BA product backlog ordered by value tracks the iterative workstream's work, and it fits within the predictive plan at the program level. A Gantt chart and a work breakdown structure without iterations do not track iterative work, and a risk register records threats rather than the work itself.
Question 9
Defects are being found after release, and the team wants to prevent them earlier in the life cycle. Which practice fits best?
- ATracking warranty claims, to find the defects that customers report after go-live
- BA final inspection of the product only, carried out just before handover to the customer
- CCustomer acceptance testing after the release has been deployed to production
- DPeer reviews and inspections of work products during development
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Correct answer: DPeer reviews and inspections during development find defects while they are cheap to fix, which prevents them from reaching release. Final inspection, acceptance testing and warranty tracking all find defects later, when the cost of fixing them is higher.
Question 10
Which statement about project baselines is correct?
- AA baseline can be changed freely by the team at any time, since it is only a working estimate
- BA baseline is created once at the start of the project and is never reviewed again
- CA baseline is created only for cost, and not for the scope or the schedule of the project
- DA baseline changes only through the approved change control process
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Correct answer: DBaselines change only through approved change control, which keeps changes visible and justified. Free changes remove the reference point for measuring performance, and baselines are reviewed and updated through governance rather than kept unchanged. Baselines exist for scope, schedule and cost, not for cost alone.
People (10 questions)
Question 11
A developer on a Scrum team has been quiet in stand-ups for two weeks, and their output has dropped. What should the Scrum Master do FIRST?
- AReport the developer's performance to the functional manager at the next review
- BHold a private one-to-one to understand what is blocking the developer
- CReassign the developer's stories to a teammate without discussing it with them
- DAdd a daily check-in with the product owner to track the developer's progress
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Correct answer: BA private conversation reveals the cause, which could be workload, a technical blocker or a personal issue, before any action is taken. Reporting the developer to a manager skips the step that would reveal the cause. Reassigning work without discussion removes the person from the problem, and daily check-ins with the product owner add pressure without addressing what is going on.
Question 12
A stakeholder keeps adding requests late in the project and bypasses the change control process. What is the BEST response?
- AMeet with the stakeholder to review the change process and show the impact of each request on schedule and cost
- BIgnore the requests until the next release, when they can be considered
- CEscalate to the stakeholder's manager on the first occurrence, without a conversation
- DGrant every request so that the stakeholder stays engaged with the project
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Correct answer: AA direct conversation explains the change process and shows the cost and schedule effect of each request, which addresses the behaviour while keeping the stakeholder engaged. Granting everything removes control of scope, and ignoring requests frustrates the stakeholder. Escalating immediately, without a conversation, damages the relationship before it has been tried.
Question 13
Two team members disagree about how a shared component should be designed, and the disagreement is slowing the team. What should the project manager do FIRST?
- AChoose a design personally, and tell the team to follow it without further discussion
- BAsk the two members to settle it by flipping a coin, so that the team can move on quickly
- CFacilitate a discussion that surfaces each option's trade-offs, and agree on the decision criteria
- DEscalate the disagreement to the sponsor for a decision during the current week
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Correct answer: CFacilitating the discussion lets the team compare trade-offs against agreed criteria, which produces a decision the team owns. Imposing a design or using chance skips the reasoning. Escalating to the sponsor is appropriate only if the team cannot resolve the disagreement itself.
Question 14
A new member joins the team in the middle of the project, and a senior member is worried about the time that onboarding will take. What should the project manager do?
- AAsk the new member to learn the project alone, using the documentation
- BDelay the onboarding until after the release, to avoid disrupting the team
- CAdd the new member to the team without any onboarding, so that they learn on the job
- DPlan a short onboarding with a buddy and clear first tasks, and then reassess capacity
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Correct answer: DA short, planned onboarding with a buddy and clear first tasks limits the disruption and gets the new member productive sooner, and reassessing capacity keeps the plan realistic. Learning alone from documentation is slow, delaying onboarding leaves capacity idle, and no onboarding causes avoidable errors.
Question 15
The sponsor wants a weekly status update, while a key stakeholder prefers a monthly summary. What is the best approach to communication?
- ASend the same weekly update to everyone, so that no one is missing information
- BSend updates only when something has gone wrong, so that people are not overloaded
- CAgree a communication plan that sets each stakeholder's information needs and frequency
- DLet each stakeholder request its own format and frequency, and produce each one separately
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Correct answer: CA communication plan records each stakeholder's needs, format and frequency, and it keeps the effort manageable while meeting the requirements. Sending the same update to everyone ignores differing needs, and updates only on problems leave stakeholders uninformed. Separate formats for each request create unmanageable work.
Question 16
The team's meetings are poorly facilitated, and decisions are not being made. What is the best coaching approach?
- ACoach the team on decision-making techniques, and let members practise them in their meetings
- BMake the decisions for the team, so that progress is faster
- CRemove the team's regular meetings, so that fewer decisions are needed each week
- DReplace the team lead with a new manager, who will take charge of the meetings
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Correct answer: ACoaching the team on decision-making techniques and giving members the chance to practise builds the team's capability, which lasts beyond the project. Making decisions for the team removes ownership, and removing meetings does not solve the problem. Replacing the lead is an extreme step that the scenario does not justify.
Question 17
A team member is blocked by a dependency owned by a different department. Who should the project manager engage first?
- AThe sponsor, so that the issue can be escalated to the top of the organisation at once
- BThe dependency owner, to agree a plan and a date for the work
- CThe procurement manager, in case the dependency can be bought from an outside supplier
- DThe customer's executives, so that the customer can put pressure on the other department
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Correct answer: BThe dependency owner can agree a plan and a date directly, which resolves the block fastest. Escalating straight to the sponsor or the customer skips the people who can act, and procurement is relevant only if the dependency is bought.
Question 18
Which two actions help a servant leader remove impediments for a team? (Choose two.)
- AAssign tasks directly to each team member, so that the work is shared out evenly
- BCoordinate with stakeholders to remove blocking issues that the team cannot clear itself
- CSet the team's priorities without consulting the product owner, to speed up decisions
- DFacilitate the team's own retrospectives, and act on the improvements the team agrees
- EHold the team to fixed reporting schedules, so that progress is visible to the organisation
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Correct answer: B, DA servant leader removes blockers that sit outside the team by coordinating with stakeholders, and facilitates retrospectives so the team improves its own ways of working. Assigning tasks and setting priorities without the product owner take ownership away from the team, and fixed reporting schedules add overhead without removing impediments.
Question 19
Which two conflict-resolution approaches are best suited to a long-running team relationship? (Choose two.)
- AForcing a decision by using hierarchical authority, so that the matter is closed quickly
- BCollaborating to find a win-win solution that meets the underlying needs of both parties
- CWithdrawing from the discussion until the disagreement settles without any action
- DSmoothing over the differences to keep the peace, without addressing the underlying cause
- EProblem-solving with both parties to address the root cause of the conflict
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Correct answer: B, ECollaboration and problem-solving address the underlying needs and causes, which keeps the relationship healthy over time. Forcing ends the discussion without buy-in, withdrawing leaves the problem in place, and smoothing hides it until it returns.
Question 20
A Scrum team's velocity has dropped since a reorganisation. What is the best first step for the Scrum Master?
- ASet a higher velocity target for the next sprint, so that the team recovers its pace
- BAsk the team to explain what changed, and discuss it at the retrospective
- CReplace the lowest-performing members of the team with people from another team
- DCompare the team's velocity with that of the faster team in the next department
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Correct answer: BAsking the team what changed and discussing it at the retrospective uncovers the real causes, such as new dependencies or unfamiliar roles, so the team can act on them. Raising the target ignores the cause, and replacing members or comparing with another team is premature and unfair.
Business Environment (10 questions)
Question 21
A new regulation takes effect in four months and affects several of the project's deliverables. What should the project manager do FIRST?
- AAssess the regulation's impact on scope, schedule and risks, and bring the findings to the sponsor
- BTell the sponsor that the project will ignore the regulation until it is enforced
- CStart building the compliance feature immediately, without an impact assessment
- DRemove the affected deliverables from the scope without consulting the stakeholders
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Correct answer: AAn impact assessment shows which deliverables, dates and risks change, and it gives the sponsor the information needed to decide on scope and funding. Building before assessing risks wasted work, and ignoring or removing deliverables without consultation exposes the organisation to non-compliance.
Question 22
A project's benefits depend on a regional team adopting a new process, and that team resists the change. Which action best supports benefit realisation?
- AClose the project once the software is deployed, since adoption is outside the project's scope
- BMandate adoption through a policy, and expect compliance without providing any support
- CPlan organisational change management with training, sponsor reinforcement and adoption metrics
- DDelay benefits tracking until the regional team has fully adopted the process
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Correct answer: COrganisational change management with training, sponsor reinforcement and adoption metrics addresses the resistance that stops benefits from being realised. Closing at deployment leaves the benefit at risk. A mandate without support creates resentment, and delaying measurement hides whether the benefit is being achieved.
Question 23
A competitor launches a similar product during the project. What should the project manager do FIRST?
- AReview the business case and benefits with the sponsor, to confirm the project still delivers value
- BStop the project until the competitor's product has been tested in detail
- CDouble the team size immediately, so that the project can reach the market first
- DRemove every feature that the competitor has released, so the two products do not overlap
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Correct answer: AReviewing the business case with the sponsor confirms whether the project still delivers its intended value in the changed market, which should drive any decision to change scope. Adding people or stopping the project react before the facts are known, and copying the competitor's features may not serve the business case.
Question 24
Which document links the project to the organisation's strategy and is used to justify the investment?
- AThe project management plan, which describes how the project will be executed and monitored
- BThe business case, which sets out the expected benefits, costs and strategic alignment
- CThe lessons learned register, which records what happened on earlier phases of the project
- DThe resource breakdown structure, which lists the people and equipment assigned to the work
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Correct answer: BThe business case explains why the investment is worth making, in terms of benefits, costs and alignment with strategy, and it is revisited during the project. The project management plan describes execution, lessons learned records experience, and the resource breakdown structure lists resources.
Question 25
A portfolio board funds a project in stages. Which evidence is most important for the board to decide whether to continue funding?
- AAn updated business case that shows the benefits are still expected to be achieved
- BThe team's velocity chart from the last sprint, which shows the number of story points done
- CA list of every task the team completed, with the date each task was closed
- DA report of the overtime the team has worked on the project so far
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Correct answer: AAn updated business case shows whether the expected benefits still justify the investment, which is the decision the board is making. Velocity, task lists and overtime describe activity and effort, not the value the investment will deliver.
Question 26
Which activity belongs to the closing process of a project?
- AIdentify the stakeholders, and record their interests and influence on the project
- BDocument the lessons learned, and release the resources and contracts
- CDevelop the schedule, and sequence the activities against their dependencies
- DDefine the scope of the project, and document what is in and out of it
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Correct answer: BClosing includes documenting lessons learned, releasing resources, and closing contracts and administrative records. Identifying stakeholders, defining scope and developing the schedule all happen during earlier processes.
Question 27
Which two factors most strongly affect whether a project delivers value to its organisation? (Choose two.)
- AThe colour scheme used in the project's status reports, which affects how readers perceive the project
- BThe number of meetings held each week, which shows how actively the project is being managed
- CWhether the expected benefits are realised after delivery, and sustained over time
- DThe number of people on the project team, regardless of their skills or their assignments
- EAlignment of the project's outcomes with the organisation's strategic objectives
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Correct answer: C, EValue depends on realising the expected benefits after delivery and on the project's outcomes supporting strategic objectives. Report design, meeting counts and team size do not determine whether the organisation gains value from the result.
Question 28
The organisation's strategy shifts toward new markets, and an active project was approved under the old strategy. What should the project manager do FIRST?
- AContinue unchanged, since the project was already approved by the previous governance process
- BReview the project's alignment with the new strategy with the sponsor and the portfolio board
- CAsk the team to add market features without any analysis of their value to the organisation
- DStop the project immediately, so that resources can move to the new strategic priorities
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Correct answer: BReviewing alignment with the sponsor and the portfolio board establishes whether the project still supports the strategy, which should drive any decision to continue, change or stop. Continuing unchanged ignores the strategic shift, and stopping or adding features before the review are decisions taken without the evidence.
Question 29
Which benefit of a portfolio approach matters most to the organisation?
- AProjects are approved independently of the organisation's priorities, to keep them moving
- BEach project is managed in isolation, so that failures do not spread between projects
- CInvestments and resources are prioritised across projects to meet strategic objectives
- DEach project chooses its own tools and methods, so that teams can work in the way they prefer
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Correct answer: CManaging a portfolio prioritises investment and resources across projects against strategic objectives, so the organisation spends where it gains most. Independent tools and isolated management lose that coordination, and approving projects without priorities defeats the purpose of a portfolio.
Question 30
A project delivered a product on time and within budget, but customers rarely use it. Which measure shows the project has failed to deliver its value?
- AOn-time delivery rate across the project's milestones
- BBudget variance for the project as a whole
- CNumber of change requests raised during the project
- DBenefit realisation tracking against the business case
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Correct answer: DBenefit realisation tracking compares the value the product delivers in use with the business case, which shows that the intended benefit is not being achieved. On-time and budget measures show delivery performance, and change requests count activity, so none of them show the value gap.