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Free 220-1201 practice test: 30 questions with answers
30 original questions for CompTIA A+ Core 1, drawn from every topic area. Answer each one to see whether you got it right and why. No sign-up.
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All 30 220-1201 questions with answers
The same questions as the test above, grouped by exam topic. Open any question to see the answer and explanation.
Networking (6 questions)
Question 1
A laptop is assigned a 169.254.x.x address. Which condition does this usually indicate?
- AThe address is the loopback test address
- BDHCP was not reached, so the system assigned an APIPA address
- CThe address is a public address from the ISP
- DThe laptop uses a manually configured static address
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Correct answer: BAn address in 169.254.0.0/16 is assigned automatically when no DHCP server responds. Static addresses are configured by hand, public addresses come from an ISP, and loopback is 127.0.0.1.
Question 2
Which TCP port do HTTPS connections use by default?
- A3389
- B443
- C22
- D80
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Correct answer: BHTTPS uses port 443 by default. Port 80 is for plain HTTP, port 22 is used by SSH, and port 3389 is used by Remote Desktop Protocol.
Question 3
A technician needs an encrypted command-line session to a Linux server. Which protocol should be used?
- ATelnet
- BFTP
- CSMTP
- DSSH
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Correct answer: DSSH provides an encrypted remote shell on TCP port 22. Telnet sends data in clear text, FTP is a file transfer protocol, and SMTP is used to send email.
Question 4
Which device forwards packets between different IP networks based on destination IP address?
- ARouter
- BSwitch
- CWireless access point
- DHub
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Correct answer: AA router forwards packets between networks using IP routing decisions. A switch forwards frames within a network using MAC addresses, a hub repeats signals to every port, and an access point bridges wireless clients to the wired LAN.
Question 5
Which subnet mask corresponds to the prefix /24?
- A255.0.0.0
- B255.255.255.0
- C255.255.255.128
- D255.255.0.0
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Correct answer: BA /24 prefix has 24 network bits, which is written as 255.255.255.0. /16 is 255.255.0.0, /25 is 255.255.255.128, and /8 is 255.0.0.0.
Question 6
Which two IPv4 ranges are private addresses defined for internal use? (Choose two.)
- A172.16.0.0/12
- B8.8.8.0/24
- C203.0.113.0/24
- D100.64.0.0/10
- E10.0.0.0/8
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Correct answer: A, E10.0.0.0/8 and 172.16.0.0/12 are private ranges from RFC 1918. 8.8.8.0/24 is public, 203.0.113.0/24 is reserved for documentation, and 100.64.0.0/10 is shared address space used by carrier-grade NAT.
Hardware (6 questions)
Question 7
A desktop does not power on, and no fans spin when the power button is pressed. Which component should be checked first?
- AThe power supply unit and its connections
- BThe RAM slot latches
- CThe monitor refresh rate
- DThe CPU thermal paste
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Correct answer: ANo fan activity at all points to a power delivery problem, so the PSU, its switch and cabling should be checked first. Thermal paste, RAM latches and monitor settings do not prevent the system from starting.
Question 8
Which two components are commonly installed in a PCIe x16 slot? (Choose two.)
- AA graphics card
- BA high-speed network or RAID adapter card
- CSystem memory modules
- DA SATA hard drive
- EA USB flash drive
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Correct answer: A, BPCIe x16 slots host graphics cards and some high-bandwidth adapters. System memory uses DIMM slots, SATA drives connect with SATA cables, and USB flash drives plug into USB ports.
Question 9
A technician is upgrading the memory of a desktop motherboard that has DDR4 slots. Which module type is required?
- ADDR4 DIMM
- BDDR3 SO-DIMM
- CDDR5 DIMM
- DSDRAM SIMM
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Correct answer: ADDR4 desktop slots accept DDR4 DIMM modules with the matching key position. DDR3 and DDR5 use different notches, SO-DIMM is a laptop form factor, and SIMM is an obsolete format.
Question 10
Which storage technology has no moving parts and stores data in flash memory?
- AOptical disc
- BTape drive
- CHard disk drive
- DSolid-state drive
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Correct answer: DA solid-state drive stores data in flash memory without spinning platters or moving heads. Hard drives use spinning platters, optical discs use a spinning disc and a laser, and tape drives move tape past read heads.
Question 11
A technician replaces a SATA drive in a desktop and needs the connector for the data cable. Which connector type is used?
- A7-pin SATA data connector
- B8-pin EPS CPU connector
- CMolex 4-pin connector
- D24-pin ATX connector
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Correct answer: ASATA data cables use a 7-pin connector. The 24-pin ATX connector powers the motherboard, the 8-pin EPS connector powers the CPU, and Molex supplies power to legacy drives.
Question 12
A 2.5-inch SSD must be installed in a desktop case that has only 3.5-inch drive bays. What is the best approach?
- AUse a 2.5-inch to 3.5-inch adapter bracket
- BInstall the SSD in a PCIe slot
- CTrim the SSD housing to fit the bay
- DReplace the motherboard with a model that has 2.5-inch bays
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Correct answer: AA mounting bracket adapts a 2.5-inch drive to a 3.5-inch bay safely. Cutting the housing damages the drive, replacing the motherboard is unnecessary, and PCIe slots are for expansion cards.
Mobile Devices (6 questions)
Question 13
A technician connects an Android phone to a Windows PC with a USB cable and needs to browse the phone's files in File Explorer. Which USB mode should be selected on the phone?
- ATethering hotspot mode
- BCharge only mode
- CAirplane mode
- DFile transfer (MTP) mode
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Correct answer: DMTP lets Windows browse the phone's storage over USB. Charge only mode provides power without data access, airplane mode disables radios, and tethering shares the phone's connection rather than its files.
Question 14
Which display technology uses a fluorescent or LED backlight behind a liquid crystal panel, and is common in business laptops?
- AE-ink
- BOLED
- CPlasma
- DLED-backlit LCD
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Correct answer: DLED-backlit LCD panels place LEDs behind the liquid crystal layer to light the image. OLED pixels emit their own light, E-ink is reflective, and plasma is a large-screen technology that is not used in laptops.
Question 15
A Wi-Fi-only tablet cannot connect to a cellular network even with a valid SIM card installed. What is the most likely cause?
- AThe DNS server address is incorrect
- BThe model has no cellular radio
- CA VPN client is connected
- DThe battery is low
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Correct answer: BWi-Fi-only models do not include a cellular radio, so no SIM can be used. DNS errors affect name lookups, a VPN changes routing, and a low battery does not disable a cellular radio that is present.
Question 16
Which two methods help protect a mobile device from unauthorised access? (Choose two.)
- ADisabling the lock screen so forgotten passcodes are not an issue
- BSharing the device passcode with coworkers
- CTurning off device encryption to speed up startup
- DA screen lock with a PIN or passcode
- EA biometric lock such as fingerprint or face unlock
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Correct answer: D, EPIN or passcode locks and biometric locks restrict who can use the device. Disabling the lock, sharing the passcode and turning off encryption all weaken protection.
Question 17
Which short-range wireless technology is used to pair wireless headphones and keyboards with a phone?
- ACellular data
- BGPS
- CBluetooth
- DNFC
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Correct answer: CBluetooth pairs nearby peripherals over short distances. NFC works only at a few centimetres for tap payments, cellular provides network data, and GPS receives satellite positioning signals.
Question 18
A laptop's screen is blank, but the system runs and an external monitor works. Which internal part should be checked first?
- AThe USB-C charging cable that supplies power to the battery
- BThe SATA data cable that links the drive to the board
- CThe PCIe riser cable that connects the expansion card
- DThe embedded display cable that runs through the hinge to the panel
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Correct answer: DThe internal display cable carries the video signal from the motherboard to the panel. Charging cables supply power, SATA cables connect drives, and riser cables serve expansion cards, so none of them feed the laptop panel.
Hardware and Network Troubleshooting (6 questions)
Question 19
A user reports that a website loads when entered by IP address but not by name. Which service should be checked first?
- ANTP
- BSNMP
- CDNS
- DDHCP
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Correct answer: CName resolution is handled by DNS, so a name failure with a working IP points to DNS. DHCP assigns addresses, NTP synchronises time, and SNMP monitors devices.
Question 20
After a new SSD is installed, a PC displays the message that no bootable device was found. What should the technician check first?
- AThe mouse pointer speed
- BThe boot order in firmware and whether the SSD is detected
- CThe keyboard layout setting in Windows
- DThe monitor refresh rate
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Correct answer: BA missing boot device usually means the drive is not detected or is not in the boot order. Keyboard, monitor and mouse settings have no effect on which device the firmware boots from.
Question 21
A Windows user is connected to Wi-Fi with a self-assigned address and cannot reach the internet. Which command displays the IP configuration, including the default gateway?
- Adiskpart
- Bchkdsk
- Cipconfig
- Dsfc
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Correct answer: Cipconfig shows the IP address, subnet mask and default gateway for each adapter. chkdsk checks disks, diskpart manages partitions, and sfc checks protected system files.
Question 22
A technician needs to see each router hop between a Windows PC and a remote server to locate where latency begins. Which command should be used?
- Anslookup
- Bgpresult
- Cnetstat
- Dtracert
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Correct answer: Dtracert lists each hop on the path with its response time. nslookup queries DNS, netstat lists connections and ports, and gpresult reports applied Group Policy.
Question 23
A desktop CPU reaches high temperatures and slows down under load. What is the most likely fix to check first?
- AThe monitor brightness and gamma curve
- BThe number of USB ports used by external peripherals
- CThe CPU cooler, its fan and the thermal paste
- DThe size of the hard drive partition
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Correct answer: CThermal throttling points to cooling problems, so the cooler, fan and thermal interface should be checked first. Storage size, brightness and port count do not change CPU temperature.
Question 24
A technician suspects a network patch cable has a broken conductor. Which tool should confirm the fault?
- AA cable tester that checks continuity and wire map
- BA torque driver used to fasten rack screws
- CAn anti-static wrist strap worn while seated
- DA label printer that prints cable identifiers
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Correct answer: AA cable tester checks continuity and wire mapping, which reveals broken or crossed conductors. Torque drivers tighten fasteners, wrist straps prevent static, and label printers mark cables.
Virtualization and Cloud Computing (6 questions)
Question 25
An administrator must move a running virtual machine to another physical host with minimal interruption. Which feature provides this?
- ALive migration
- BSnapshot deletion
- CThin provisioning
- DCold cloning
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Correct answer: ALive migration moves a running VM between hosts with little or no downtime. Snapshots capture point-in-time state, thin provisioning allocates disk space on demand, and cold cloning requires the VM to be powered off.
Question 26
Which two characteristics are typical of cloud computing? (Choose two.)
- AManual provisioning requested through a helpdesk for every change
- BOn-demand self-service provisioning
- CPay only for the resources consumed
- DMandatory on-premises hardware for each service
- EFixed capacity that cannot be scaled
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Correct answer: B, CCloud services provide self-service provisioning and consumption-based billing. Mandatory on-premises hardware, fixed capacity and manual helpdesk provisioning all describe traditional models that cloud computing avoids.
Question 27
Which cloud deployment model is used exclusively by a single organisation?
- APublic cloud
- BCommunity cloud
- CHybrid cloud
- DPrivate cloud
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Correct answer: DA private cloud is dedicated to one organisation, whether hosted on premises or by a provider. A public cloud is shared by many customers, a community cloud serves a group with shared requirements, and a hybrid cloud combines models.
Question 28
Which hypervisor type runs directly on physical hardware without a general-purpose host operating system underneath?
- AType 2 (hosted) hypervisor for VMs
- BThin client broker service
- CContainer runtime using containerd
- DType 1 (bare-metal) hypervisor
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Correct answer: DA Type 1 hypervisor runs on bare metal and hosts virtual machines directly. A Type 2 hypervisor runs on top of an operating system, containers share a host kernel, and a thin client broker is not a hypervisor type.
Question 29
A customer needs cloud virtual machines that the customer configures and patches, including the operating system. Which service model fits?
- APaaS
- BDRaaS
- CIaaS
- DSaaS
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Correct answer: CInfrastructure as a Service gives customers virtual machines they manage, including the operating system. SaaS delivers finished applications, PaaS manages the platform for code, and DRaaS provides disaster recovery as a service.
Question 30
A VM snapshot has been kept for several months before a patch. What is the main risk of leaving it in place?
- AThe snapshot chain grows, which consumes storage and can slow disk I/O
- BThe host's CPU is disabled by the hypervisor scheduler while the snapshot is open
- CBackups of the VM become impossible to restore once the chain is consolidated
- DThe VM's MAC address changes permanently when the VM reverts to a snapshot state
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Correct answer: ALong-lived snapshots keep growing delta files that consume storage and slow disk operations. They do not change MAC addresses, disable CPUs, or make backups unrestorable.