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Free CNX-001 practice test: 30 questions with answers
30 original questions for CompTIA CloudNetX, drawn from every topic area. Answer each one to see whether you got it right and why. No sign-up.
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All 30 CNX-001 questions with answers
The same questions as the test above, grouped by exam topic. Open any question to see the answer and explanation.
Network architecture design (8 questions)
Question 1
Following a merger, an engineer must connect two offices that both use the 10.20.0.0/16 range internally. Neither network can be renumbered before the project deadline. Which approach allows the offices to communicate?
- AAdvertise both identical prefixes unchanged so routers choose the closest path
- BPlace a firewall between the offices that blocks all traffic from the shared range
- CTranslate the overlapping addresses at the interconnect with NAT and route the mapped ranges
- DWiden the subnet mask on the core switches so both overlapping ranges merge into a single broadcast domain
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Correct answer: CNetwork address translation at the boundary lets overlapping private ranges coexist by presenting mapped addresses that do not collide. Advertising identical prefixes creates ambiguous routes, removing routes breaks connectivity, and widening masks changes the addressing plan without solving the overlap.
Question 2
Which benefit does route summarization provide in a large routed network?
- AIt guarantees the shortest path for every flow regardless of link cost
- BIt encrypts routing updates exchanged between neighboring routers
- CIt reduces the number of routes that routers must store and advertise
- DIt removes the need for a default gateway on end-user devices
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Correct answer: CSummarization replaces many specific prefixes with one aggregate route, which shrinks routing tables and update traffic. Path selection still depends on metrics and link costs, summarization does not encrypt updates, and end hosts still need a default gateway.
Question 3
A data center's east-west traffic between application servers is growing, and the team wants to add capacity without redesigning the cabling for each new rack. Which topology best fits this goal?
- AThree-tier hierarchy with a single core switch at the top
- BSpine-and-leaf with each leaf connected to every spine
- CRing topology in which each switch links only to its two neighbors
- DFlat design where every server connects to one large unmanaged switch
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Correct answer: BSpine-and-leaf gives predictable paths between leaves and scales by adding leaves or spines, which suits east-west traffic. A single core in a three-tier design becomes a bottleneck for east-west flows, a ring adds hops, and a flat unmanaged switch offers no segmentation or scale.
Question 4
Which two statements about spine-and-leaf topologies are accurate? (Choose two.)
- AEndpoints typically attach to leaf switches, and spines interconnect the leaves
- BLeaf switches are cabled directly to one another to form a full mesh
- CAdding another spine switch increases the number of equal-cost paths between leaves
- DSpine switches are the usual point where servers and workstations are connected
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Correct answer: A, CIn this design endpoints connect to leaves and spines carry traffic between leaves, so each added spine adds parallel paths. Leaves are not cabled to each other in the standard model, and attaching endpoints to spines defeats the purpose of the layout.
Question 5
A retailer with many branch sites wants to use inexpensive broadband links alongside its private circuit, steer business applications over the best available path, and manage policy from one console. Which technology best matches these needs?
- AA single MPLS circuit per branch with no secondary link for resilience
- BSoftware-defined WAN with centralized policy and application-aware path selection
- CStretching every branch VLAN across the public internet as one flat Layer 2 domain
- DManually configured floating static routes on each branch router
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Correct answer: BSD-WAN combines several transports such as broadband and private circuits and steers applications using centrally managed policy. A single MPLS circuit lacks path diversity, a flat Layer 2 stretch over the internet is fragile, and static routes do not react to application performance.
Question 6
A company must protect traffic between two sites that connect through the public internet. The traffic must be encrypted and authenticated at the IP layer, and both gateways are owned by the company. Which solution is most appropriate?
- AAn IPsec site-to-site VPN between the two company-owned routers
- BA plain GRE tunnel that carries traffic without encryption
- CA browser-based SSL portal that each user signs into separately
- DA VLAN trunk extended across the public internet between the sites
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Correct answer: AAn IPsec site-to-site tunnel encrypts and authenticates IP traffic between two gateways, which fits router-to-router protection over the internet. A plain GRE tunnel adds no encryption, an SSL portal is built for individual user access, and a VLAN extended over the internet is neither secure nor a sound site-to-site design.
Question 7
A media company serves large images and video to readers on several continents, and most of this content does not change for hours. Which design best reduces load on the origin servers and latency for readers?
- ACaching static objects on edge servers near the readers
- BRouting every reader through one shared VPN concentrator first
- CRaising the TCP window size on every origin server
- DBuying a larger origin server and keeping it in one data center
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Correct answer: AA content delivery network caches content on geographically distributed edge servers, so most requests are served near readers and the origin sees less load. A bigger single origin, a funnel through one VPN concentrator, or a TCP window tweak does not address geographic latency or origin offload.
Question 8
A web platform sends requests for /api to one server pool and requests for /images to another. The load balancer must also terminate TLS and inspect HTTP headers. Which type of load balancer is required?
- AA Layer 7 balancer that routes requests by HTTP path and headers
- BA Layer 4 balancer that distributes traffic by IP address and port
- CA Layer 2 switch that spreads frames across uplinks by MAC address and VLAN
- DA DNS round-robin record that returns server addresses in turn
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Correct answer: ALayer 7 load balancers read HTTP request details such as path and headers, so they can send /api and /images to different pools and often terminate TLS. A Layer 4 balancer forwards by IP and port, a Layer 2 switch does not understand HTTP, and DNS round robin cannot inspect requests.
Network security (8 questions)
Question 9
What capability distinguishes a stateful firewall from a stateless packet filter?
- AIt assigns IP addresses to clients on the internal network
- BIt encrypts traffic flowing between two hosts on the same segment
- CIt tracks connection state so replies match an open session
- DIt filters only on destination MAC address and ignores the IP header
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Correct answer: CA stateful firewall keeps a table of active sessions, so it can permit return traffic that belongs to an allowed connection. A stateless filter evaluates each packet alone, and firewalls do not assign addresses, encrypt traffic or filter on MAC addresses for routed traffic.
Question 10
A company wants laptops to be checked for current antivirus and patch levels before they receive access to the corporate LAN from any wired port. Noncompliant laptops should be placed in a restricted network until they are remediated. Which control fits?
- AStatic port security that binds each switch port to one trusted MAC address
- BNetwork access control integrated with 802.1X and posture assessment
- CA perimeter firewall rule that blocks outbound web browsing
- DDHCP snooping that validates which devices may obtain an address
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Correct answer: BNAC combined with 802.1X authenticates the device or user at the port and can assess posture, moving noncompliant endpoints into a quarantine network. Static port security only limits MAC addresses, a perimeter rule does not check endpoint health, and DHCP snooping protects address assignment rather than granting posture-based access.
Question 11
A contractor needs to reach one internal billing application from an unmanaged laptop. The company does not want the contractor placed on a network where other internal systems are reachable. Which approach best fits?
- AA full-tunnel VPN that places the contractor on the internal subnet
- BPlacing the contractor's laptop in the DMZ with unrestricted outbound access
- CA shared administrator account given to the contractor for the billing server
- DZero trust network access brokering a connection to the billing app only
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Correct answer: DZero trust network access grants identity-based access to a specific application instead of the whole network, which matches least privilege. A full tunnel exposes the internal subnet, a shared account breaks accountability, and an open DMZ placement is risky for an unmanaged device.
Question 12
Which function does a cloud access security broker (CASB) primarily provide?
- ARouting of traffic between leaf and spine switches in a data center
- BVisibility and policy control over users' activity in cloud applications
- CDistribution of inbound web requests across application servers
- DIssuance of digital certificates to users and devices across the enterprise
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Correct answer: BA CASB sits between users and cloud services to give visibility into cloud use and enforce data and access policies. Leaf-spine routing, certificate issuance and request distribution are handled by other infrastructure, not by a CASB.
Question 13
A company wants each laptop to join its corporate wireless network with a credential tied to that device, not one passphrase shared by all staff. Which PKI element fits this requirement?
- AA longer pre-shared key rotated monthly on the access point
- BA single wildcard certificate copied onto every laptop as a shared secret
- CUnique device certificates issued by the internal certificate authority
- DA captive portal page that displays a rotating guest password
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Correct answer: CCertificates issued by an internal certificate authority give each device its own verifiable identity, which supports certificate-based wireless authentication. A shared wildcard certificate or pre-shared key is still a shared secret, and a captive portal serves guests rather than device identity.
Question 14
Network engineers occasionally need administrator rights on core routers for a maintenance window. Security wants those rights granted only when needed, for a limited time, with every session recorded for review. Which control best meets this requirement?
- ALocal router accounts with no password, relying only on access to the server room
- BA permanent shared enable password stored in a team spreadsheet
- CRead-only SNMP community strings distributed to every engineer
- DPrivileged access management with timed elevation and session recording
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Correct answer: DPrivileged access management grants elevated rights just in time, limits their duration and records sessions for audit. Shared permanent passwords, read-only SNMP strings and unauthenticated local accounts do not provide time-bound, individually accountable privilege.
Question 15
Which WPA3-Personal feature helps protect the passphrase against offline dictionary attacks on a captured handshake?
- AOpen authentication with MAC address filtering on the access point
- BA captive portal that requires a fresh login for each wireless session
- CWEP-compatible RC4 encryption retained for older wireless clients
- DSimultaneous Authentication of Equals, a password key exchange method
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Correct answer: DSAE in WPA3-Personal performs a password-based key exchange that resists offline guessing from a captured handshake. Open authentication, WEP-style RC4 and captive portals do not provide that protection, and MAC filtering is easily spoofed.
Question 16
Which two actions reduce the risk of wireless access to internal resources? (Choose two.)
- APlace guest wireless on a separate VLAN with no route to internal networks
- BHide the SSID broadcast and treat that as the main access control
- CUse WPA3 or WPA2-Enterprise with 802.1X authentication for corporate devices
- DKeep WEP enabled on legacy printers because they cannot support newer protocols
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Correct answer: A, CIsolating guest traffic from internal networks and using 802.1X-based enterprise authentication both limit what a wireless client can reach and who may connect. Hiding the SSID is not a real control because clients still learn it during association, and WEP is broken and should not stay enabled.
Network troubleshooting (7 questions)
Question 17
Users can reach an application by typing its IP address, but the same application fails when they use its hostname. Which area should a technician check first?
- AThe DNS records for the hostname and the resolver the clients use
- BThe MTU setting on the WAN router that carries the application traffic
- CThe VLAN assignment of the access ports used by the affected users
- DThe routing table entry for the application's subnet on the core router
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Correct answer: AReachability by IP but not by name points to name resolution, so the DNS records and the resolver configuration are the first things to verify. The symptoms rule out general IP reachability problems, which makes MTU, VLAN assignment and subnet routing less likely causes.
Question 18
Remote staff connect to the VPN without errors, but they cannot reach a file server on an internal subnet. Which check best isolates the cause?
- AReinstall the operating system on every remote laptop that uses the VPN
- BIncrease the VPN session lifetime so clients stay connected longer
- CVerify the tunnel delivers routes to the server subnet and policy permits access
- DChange the tunnel protocol to PPTP, which is simpler to configure for remote users with older devices
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Correct answer: CThe tunnel is up, so the problem lies in the routes delivered to the client or in the policy for that subnet, and checking them isolates the cause. Session lifetime and operating system reinstalls do not address the path, and PPTP is an obsolete protocol rather than a fix.
Question 19
A dedicated private link connects an on-premises data center to a cloud network and exchanges routes over BGP. Traffic to one cloud subnet fails, but the BGP session shows as established. What should the engineer verify next?
- AWhether the cloud subnet name resolves to a shorter alias in the on-premises DNS zone
- BWhether the expected prefixes are advertised and accepted across the BGP session
- CWhether the interconnect VLAN tags are stripped by the on-premises core switch
- DWhether the on-premises hosts' default gateway was changed during the last maintenance
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Correct answer: BWith the BGP session established, the next step is to confirm that routes for the cloud subnet are advertised and accepted in the right direction. DNS aliases, copper cabling for a fiber link and gateway changes do not address missing or filtered routes.
Question 20
Users report slow application responses only between 9 a.m. and 11 a.m. on weekdays, while ping round-trip times look normal at other times. Which investigation is most likely to find the cause?
- AThe number of wireless SSIDs broadcast by access points in the lobby
- BThe number of DNS zones hosted on the authoritative servers for the domain
- CThe firmware build date printed on the access switches in the wiring closet
- DInterface utilization and queue drops on the busy link during those hours
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Correct answer: DA repeated peak-time pattern points to congestion, so utilization and queue drops on the affected link show whether capacity is the bottleneck. DNS zone counts, firmware dates and SSID counts do not explain a time-of-day latency pattern.
Question 21
Which tool is most useful for finding the hop where packet loss or delay begins along a path to a remote destination?
- Aipconfig, which displays the local adapter's address settings
- Bnslookup, which queries DNS servers for names of the destination
- Ctraceroute, which reports the responding hop and timing for each step
- Dnetstat, which lists local sockets that are currently open and their owning processes
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Correct answer: CTraceroute sends probes with increasing TTL values and reports each responding hop, so repeated loss or delay at one hop shows where the problem starts. Nslookup, ipconfig and netstat report DNS answers, local addresses and local sockets, not per-hop path behavior.
Question 22
A new application server was deployed on a separate subnet. Clients on the corporate LAN time out when connecting to it on TCP port 8443, and the firewall logs show denied packets to that port. Which action is the most appropriate fix?
- AAdd a narrowly scoped rule allowing the client subnet to reach TCP 8443
- BUpgrade firmware on the access switches to a newer release across the campus
- CDisable firewall logging so the denied packets stop filling the log file
- DChange the server's hostname so it resolves to a different address on the LAN
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Correct answer: AThe logs show the firewall is denying the traffic, so a narrowly scoped permit rule for the client subnet and port is the targeted fix. Switch firmware, disabling logs and renaming hosts do not change the policy that is blocking the connection.
Question 23
Which two actions help isolate intermittent packet loss on a network path? (Choose two.)
- ACompare interface error counters on each device along the affected path
- BReboot the core switch every time users report a slow connection
- CRun repeated probes from both ends and log the results over time
- DChange the DNS server addresses on every client before measurements begin
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Correct answer: A, CError counters on each device and repeated probes from both ends reveal where and when loss occurs, which helps isolate intermittent faults. Rebooting the core switch disrupts service without evidence, and changing DNS servers does not measure packet loss.
Network operations, monitoring, and performance (7 questions)
Question 24
A monitoring team receives many alerts whenever a link briefly spikes to high utilization for a few seconds and then recovers. Which alerting approach reduces this noise while still catching sustained problems?
- AAlert on every individual sample that crosses the threshold, with no delay
- BAlert when a condition persists across a defined evaluation window
- CAlert only after a user opens a support ticket about slow service
- DTurn off thresholds entirely and review graphs once each week
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Correct answer: BRequiring a condition to persist over an evaluation window filters out brief spikes while still catching sustained degradation. Alerting on every sample creates noise, disabling thresholds hides problems until review, and waiting for user tickets is reactive.
Question 25
The firewall rule set on several devices has been edited by hand over the past year, and the documented rules no longer match what is running. The team wants to detect such drift and restore the approved state automatically. Which practice best addresses this?
- AKeep approved configs in version control and apply them through a pipeline
- BAsk each administrator to email a summary of every change each month
- CTake a screenshot of the device console once a year for the audit file
- DClone the firewall configuration to a spare device and leave it untouched afterward
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Correct answer: AInfrastructure as code with version control and automated pipelines makes the approved state the source of truth, so drift can be detected and corrected. Emailed summaries and yearly screenshots do not give continuous detection, and an untouched clone drifts from the live devices over time.
Question 26
Which metric defines the maximum acceptable time to restore a network service after an outage?
- ARecovery point objective, the acceptable amount of data loss
- BMaximum transmission unit, the largest packet size a link carries
- CMean time between failures, the average operating time between faults
- DRecovery time objective, the target maximum time to restore service
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Correct answer: DThe recovery time objective is the target maximum downtime before a service must be restored. The recovery point objective refers to acceptable data loss, mean time between failures measures reliability, and MTU is a packet size setting.
Question 27
Which two elements form a useful performance baseline for network monitoring? (Choose two.)
- AHistorical utilization and latency data collected from links during normal operation
- BOnly the default alert thresholds that shipped with the monitoring product
- CA one-time screenshot of interface counters taken at installation time
- DKnown normal ranges for key metrics such as latency, errors and utilization
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Correct answer: A, DA baseline comes from historical performance data and documented normal ranges, so later deviations stand out. Vendor default thresholds are not tuned to the environment, and one screenshot at installation says nothing about normal behavior over time.
Question 28
A network team sees a WAN link running near capacity and needs to know which internal hosts and applications generate most of the traffic over that link. Which telemetry type is most suitable?
- AA ping sweep that reports which hosts answer ICMP echo requests
- BOnly interface error counters sampled periodically from the link
- CSyslog messages reporting when the link was last brought up
- DFlow records that summarize conversations by source, destination and protocol
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Correct answer: DFlow records such as NetFlow or IPFIX summarize conversations, which shows the top talkers and applications on a congested link. Error counters, link-state syslog and ping sweeps do not show how traffic volume is distributed among hosts.
Question 29
Why do operators often monitor 95th-percentile latency in addition to average latency?
- APercentile values reveal tail delays that a single average can hide from some users
- BAn average latency value cannot be calculated for links that carry encrypted traffic
- CStandards bodies require percentile reporting before a link can be placed in service
- DAverages only measure the first packet in each session, so they miss later delays
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Correct answer: AA small share of slow requests can barely move the average while still hurting users, so percentile metrics expose the tail more clearly. Encryption does not prevent averaging, no standard requires percentile reporting to activate a link, and averages cover all samples rather than just the first packet.
Question 30
A configuration script is run twice against a switch. The second run makes no changes because the device already matches the desired state. Which property of the automation does this demonstrate?
- AConcurrency, so several tasks can run at the same time on the device
- BIdempotence, so repeated runs produce the same end state
- CVersioning, so each run is tagged with a unique commit identifier
- DRollback, so a failed run restores the previous configuration automatically
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Correct answer: BIdempotent automation checks the current state and changes only what differs, so repeated runs converge to the same result. Concurrency, versioning and rollback are useful practices, but they are not what a no-change second run demonstrates.