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Free CS0-004 practice test: 30 questions with answers
30 original questions for CompTIA CySA+ (V4), drawn from every topic area. Answer each one to see whether you got it right and why. No sign-up.
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All 30 CS0-004 questions with answers
The same questions as the test above, grouped by exam topic. Open any question to see the answer and explanation.
Security Operations (8 questions)
Question 1
A SOC analyst notices repeated failed logons for many accounts from a single source IP, followed by one successful logon. Which detection approach best matches this pattern?
- AChecking the certificate expiry dates of internet-facing web servers in the DMZ
- BCorrelating authentication logs over time to find brute force followed by a successful login
- CScanning the host for open TCP ports and service banners to map running software
- DReviewing the printer spooler logs on the floor network for recurring paper jams
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Correct answer: BCorrelating failed and successful authentication events over time reveals password spraying or brute force that ends in a compromise. A port scan or unrelated logs do not show the authentication sequence, and certificate dates are not relevant.
Question 2
Which SIEM capability reduces alert fatigue by grouping related events into a single incident for analysts?
- ACorrelation rules with aggregation and deduplication
- BIncreasing the log retention period on SIEM indexes for audits
- CDisabling low-severity alerts without triage
- DForwarding raw events to a shared spreadsheet
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Correct answer: ACorrelation and aggregation combine related events into one alert or case, which lowers the volume analysts must triage. Longer retention does not reduce noise, disabling alerts without review hides real activity, and spreadsheets do not scale.
Question 3
An analyst must determine whether a suspicious PowerShell command ran on a workstation. Which data source provides the most direct evidence of process execution with command-line arguments?
- AFirewall allow lists that record permitted connections to external hosts and ports
- BEndpoint detection and response process telemetry with command-line logging
- CBadge access logs recording building entry and exit times for staff and visitors
- DPrinter spooler queue holding pending print jobs and driver status for office devices
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Correct answer: BEDR process telemetry and command-line logging record the process tree and arguments used to launch PowerShell. Firewall lists and badge logs do not show process activity, and printer queues are unrelated.
Question 4
A threat hunter wants to find systems that beacon regularly to an external host, which is typical of command-and-control traffic. Which analysis technique is most useful?
- AAnalyzing network flow timing for periodic connection intervals
- BChecking the configured time zone of the user accounts on each workstation
- CReviewing the wallpaper settings and screensaver timeouts on each host
- DCounting the number of installed fonts and font file sizes on each endpoint
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Correct answer: ABeaconing shows up as connections at regular intervals with similar sizes, which flow timing analysis can reveal. Wallpapers, fonts and time zones are not indicators of command-and-control communication.
Question 5
Which two data sources help a team confirm lateral movement between Windows hosts? (Choose two.)
- AAuthentication and session logs from domain controllers
- BPrinter toner level reports
- COffice document revision history
- DMonitor brightness settings from endpoint management
- EWindows Security event logs showing network logons and remote service creation
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Correct answer: A, EWindows Security logs record logon types and service installations used during lateral movement, and domain controller logs show authentication across systems. Toner levels, document revisions and display settings do not track remote access between hosts.
Question 6
A SOC wants to use threat intelligence to prioritize detections. Which practice gives the most actionable result?
- ABlocking the full range of public IPv4 addresses at the perimeter firewall regardless of their reputation or observed network activity
- BSubscribing to as many feeds as possible and importing raw indicators without reviewing them
- CMapping intelligence indicators and tactics to detection rules and checking whether the organization has been affected
- DReading vendor newsletters and industry news articles once a year during annual planning reviews without linking the content to rules
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Correct answer: CMapping indicators and tactics to detections and hunting for them turns intelligence into operational value. Collecting feeds without review creates noise, blocking every address is impractical, and infrequent reading does not inform detection.
Question 7
Which two practices are most effective for reducing attacker dwell time? (Choose two.)
- AContinuous monitoring of endpoint and identity logs with tuned alerts
- BAutomating containment for high-confidence detections
- CReviewing logs manually once per quarter
- DDisabling host firewalls to simplify investigation
- ELeaving alerts in a backlog for a month before triage
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Correct answer: A, BContinuous monitoring with tuned alerts shortens detection, and automated containment for high-confidence detections shortens the time an attacker can act. Quarterly reviews, disabled firewalls and long alert backlogs all lengthen dwell time.
Question 8
A SOC team is evaluating an AI-assisted triage feature that summarizes alerts. Which safeguard is most important before analysts rely on its summaries?
- AAllowing the feature to close low-severity alerts automatically in the SIEM queue without analyst review of the source events
- BFeeding it raw customer records and payment fields without role-based access controls in place
- CValidating summaries against the underlying raw logs and tracking accuracy over a sample of alerts
- DTrusting the summary because its wording is fluent and confident enough to skip source checks
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Correct answer: CAI summaries can omit or invent details, so analysts should verify them against source logs and measure accuracy. Automatic closure, uncontrolled data exposure and trust based on fluency all introduce risk.
Vulnerability Management (8 questions)
Question 9
A vulnerability scanner reports a critical finding on a server that is not reachable from the internet. Which factor should most influence the prioritization decision?
- AThe vendor logo and color scheme shown in the scanner dashboard header on login
- BThe date the scan was run and how long ago the previous scan completed for this host
- CExploitability in the environment, asset value, and whether compensating controls reduce exposure
- DThe character length of the vulnerability title and how many words it contains in the scanner report table
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Correct answer: CRisk-based prioritization weighs exploitability, business impact and existing controls, and an unreachable asset may be lower risk than its raw severity suggests. Logos, name lengths and scan dates do not measure risk.
Question 10
Authenticated vulnerability scans are generally more accurate than unauthenticated scans. What is the main reason?
- AThey remove false positives from the scan results by cross-checking each reported finding against vendor-signed package manifests
- BThey do not require network access to the target, since the scanning engine can be installed locally and run offline
- CThey run faster because they skip the plugin checks that test for configuration weaknesses
- DThey can inspect installed software versions and configuration settings that are not visible from the network
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Correct answer: DCredentialed scans read installed package versions and local configuration, which reduces guessing from banners and lowers false positives. Speed, automatic elimination of all false positives and network independence are not the reasons.
Question 11
A scan reports a vulnerability in a library that is present on a server but never loaded by the application. What is the most appropriate next step?
- AApply a patch to an unrelated operating system component on the database tier and reboot the host without a formal change request approval
- BIgnore the finding permanently and close the ticket without documentation or a rationale on file
- CVerify whether the vulnerable code path is reachable and document the result as a false positive or lower-priority risk
- DTake the application offline immediately and shut down the affected web tier without reviewing logs, scope, or the vulnerable library code path
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Correct answer: CConfirming whether the vulnerable code is reachable distinguishes true risk from a false positive, and documenting the reasoning supports audits. Immediate shutdown is disproportionate, permanent silent dismissal hides risk, and an unrelated patch misses the issue.
Question 12
Which control type is a compensating control for a vulnerable legacy system that cannot be patched immediately?
- AAdding a visible warning sign to the server room door and a sign-in log for visitors and staff
- BNetwork segmentation that limits access to the system to authorized sources
- CRenaming the legacy host to a less obvious hostname and changing its DNS alias on the resolver
- DIncreasing the legacy system's CPU clock speed through overclocking
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Correct answer: BSegmentation and access restriction reduce the exposure of a system that cannot be patched, which is the purpose of a compensating control. A sign, a renamed host and faster CPU do not reduce exploitability.
Question 13
An organization runs a scan that uses a version-based check for a web server. The scan reports the server as vulnerable, but the vendor backported the fix without changing the version string. Which term describes this result?
- AFalse negative
- BFalse positive
- CRemediation gap
- DTrue negative
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Correct answer: BA false positive occurs when the scanner reports a finding that is not actually present, which happens when backported patches keep a version string unchanged. A false negative is a missed real issue, and the other terms do not describe this case.
Question 14
A security analyst must schedule scans for a production database without disrupting its performance. Which approach is most appropriate?
- ADisable authentication on the database and turn off credential checks to speed up the scan because plugin runs finish faster
- BScan the production database at one-minute intervals to keep asset inventory and findings current throughout the day
- CUse a credentialed, non-intrusive scan profile during a maintenance window and test on a staging copy first
- DRun an aggressive denial-of-service style scan with high concurrency during business hours on the production database server
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Correct answer: CA non-intrusive profile during a planned window, tested first on a staging copy, limits the risk of disruption. Aggressive or frequent scans and disabling authentication can impair service or produce misleading results.
Question 15
Which metric describes how quickly the organization fixes critical vulnerabilities after they are discovered?
- ACount of unique browsers on the network
- BAverage number of printers per floor
- CMean time to remediate
- DMean time between failures of the firewall
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Correct answer: CMean time to remediate measures the elapsed time from discovery to fix, which reports remediation performance. The other metrics do not describe vulnerability management outcomes.
Question 16
Which two factors are commonly used to prioritize vulnerabilities in a risk-based program? (Choose two.)
- AThe length of the vulnerability title
- BThe name of the scanning vendor
- CEvidence of exploitation in the wild and exploit availability
- DAsset criticality to business operations
- EThe color scheme of the vulnerability report
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Correct answer: C, DExploit activity shows how likely a flaw is to be used, and asset criticality shows how much harm exploitation would cause. Report colors, title lengths and vendor names do not measure risk.
Incident Response and Management (7 questions)
Question 17
During an incident, an analyst must preserve evidence on a compromised laptop before it is reimaged. Which action should come first?
- ACreate a forensic image or memory capture with chain-of-custody documentation before changing the system
- BReimage the laptop immediately to restore service for the user, then return it to the general asset pool with a clean golden image
- CDelete the suspicious files from the temp and startup folders, clear the event logs, and reboot the laptop to remove the threat
- DPost the laptop's hostname and a description of the incident on public social media
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Correct answer: ACapturing memory and a disk image before changes preserves volatile and persistent evidence, and chain-of-custody records keep it admissible. Reimaging or deleting files destroys evidence, and public posting is inappropriate.
Question 18
Which phase of the incident response lifecycle focuses on removing the attacker's access and persistence from the environment?
- APreparation
- BLessons learned
- CDetection and analysis
- DEradication
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Correct answer: DEradication removes malware, accounts and persistence mechanisms the attacker used. Preparation happens before incidents, detection identifies them, and lessons learned follows recovery.
Question 19
Which framework maps adversary tactics and techniques observed in real attacks to a matrix that analysts can use for detection and reporting?
- AMITRE ATT&CK
- BPCI DSS scoping guidance
- CNIST SP 800-88 media sanitization
- DISO 9001 quality management
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Correct answer: AMITRE ATT&CK catalogs adversary tactics and techniques, which supports detection engineering, threat modeling and reporting. The other standards cover quality, media sanitization and payment scoping.
Question 20
In the Cyber Kill Chain model, which stage describes the attacker delivering a weaponized payload to the victim?
- ACommand and control
- BActions on objectives
- CReconnaissance
- DDelivery
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Correct answer: DDelivery is the stage where the weaponized payload reaches the target, such as by email or a malicious download. Reconnaissance gathers information, actions on objectives is the final goal, and command and control maintains access afterward.
Question 21
After a ransomware incident is contained, the team wants to find the initial access vector so the same entry point cannot be used again. Which activity supports this goal?
- AInstalling new wallpapers and screensaver policies on each workstation across the domain
- BBlaming the most recently hired contractor in the finance department without supporting evidence from the SIEM or logs
- CRestoring the affected file shares from backup and closing the ticket without investigation or root cause review
- DRoot cause analysis using logs, email and remote access records to trace the earliest malicious activity
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Correct answer: DRoot cause analysis traces the earliest evidence of compromise across logs and records, which reveals the entry point to close. Unsupported blame, closing without investigation and cosmetic changes do not prevent recurrence.
Question 22
An incident involves a credential leak in a public code repository. Which immediate response best limits the impact?
- ALeaving the repository public so the team can monitor visitor activity and collect attacker IP addresses
- BRevoking and rotating the exposed credentials and reviewing their use in logs since the exposure
- CWaiting for the next scheduled quarterly access review to rotate the exposed passwords and service accounts
- DAdding a comment to the configuration file marking the embedded API secret as confidential for code reviewers
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Correct answer: BRotating exposed credentials and reviewing their use in logs stops misuse and reveals whether they were already abused. Leaving the leak public, comments and delayed rotation all leave the exposure active.
Question 23
Which two actions belong to the containment phase of incident response? (Choose two.)
- ABlocking known malicious domains at the proxy
- BReviewing the final incident report with management
- CScheduling the next penetration test
- DUpdating security awareness slides
- EIsolating an affected host from the network
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Correct answer: A, EIsolating hosts and blocking malicious destinations limit the spread and further activity of an incident. Final reporting, future testing and training updates belong to later phases.
Reporting and Communication (7 questions)
Question 24
Executives want a monthly summary of security operations that shows whether the team is improving. Which metric best demonstrates trend in detection performance?
- AThe count of unused software licenses assigned to employees who have left the company
- BThe number of pages in the policy document and its revision history
- CThe number of coffee cups consumed by the team during each weekly stand-up meeting
- DMean time to detect, trended over several months with context on attack volume
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Correct answer: DMean time to detect trended over time, with volume context, shows whether detection is getting faster. Coffee counts, license tallies and policy page counts say nothing about detection performance.
Question 25
When reporting a critical vulnerability to a system owner, which information is most important to include?
- AAffected assets, exploitability, business impact, and a clear remediation or compensating control
- BA list of open ports on each network segment without business context or asset owners
- CThe scanner's internal plugin ID and raw XML export pasted into the ticket with no summary of the impact for review
- DThe name of the analyst's favorite vulnerability scanner and the color theme of their terminal window
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Correct answer: ASystem owners need to know what is affected, how serious it is for the business, and what action to take. Plugin IDs alone and unexplained port lists do not enable decisions, and tool preferences are irrelevant.
Question 26
Which measure best reflects the effectiveness of remediation after a vulnerability management program change?
- APercentage of critical findings remediated within the agreed service level, compared with the previous period
- BNumber of vulnerability scans executed each month regardless of their results, reported as raw scan volume for the team dashboard
- CNumber of new vulnerability management tools and licenses purchased this quarter for the scanning platform across business units
- DTotal number of hosts scanned during the quarter, even if they were already clean and tagged as compliant in the inventory
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Correct answer: AThe percentage of critical findings fixed within the service level, compared over time, directly reflects remediation effectiveness. Scan counts, purchases and host totals do not show whether risk was reduced.
Question 27
Which reporting practice best supports audit requirements for a vulnerability management program?
- ADeleting old scan reports after each run to keep the reporting database small
- BMaintaining a record of scan dates, findings, owners, risk acceptances and remediation evidence
- CKeeping findings in personal notebooks and local spreadsheets kept on laptops
- DEmailing findings to a shared distribution group with no tracking or retention controls
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Correct answer: BA traceable record of findings, owners, risk acceptances and evidence of remediation satisfies audit expectations. Personal notes, untracked email and deleting history do not provide evidence.
Question 28
A risk acceptance is requested for a vulnerability that cannot be fixed this quarter. What should the report include?
- AThe risk description, compensating controls, the accountable owner, and an expiry date for the exception
- BThe vulnerability's name and CVE identifier as the sole entry in the risk record, nothing more
- CA statement that the risk is acceptable because the team is busy with higher-priority projects and the patch backlog
- DNo information on the risk, owner or compensating controls, so that the exception form stays short and the approver can sign
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Correct answer: ARisk acceptances need a defined risk, compensating controls, a named owner and an expiry so they are reviewed. A name alone or vague justifications do not support a governed decision.
Question 29
Which communication is most appropriate for a non-technical executive after a security incident?
- AA complete packet capture with raw hexadecimal values and full payload dumps from each host in the segment
- BA short summary of business impact, containment status, decisions needed, and the next update time
- CA description of each command typed during the investigation and the shell history file
- DA list of every log line from the last month across the SIEM and endpoint sources collected
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Correct answer: BExecutives need business impact, status, decisions and the timing of the next update. Raw packets, unfiltered logs and command transcripts are too detailed for decision-making.
Question 30
Which metric best shows whether the security operations team is catching threats before they cause significant damage?
- AThe number of alerts closed without review by a tier-one analyst to reduce the queue
- BThe number of meetings held each month with the CISO, the infrastructure leads and the help desk to discuss priorities
- CThe total number of status emails sent by the team to executives each reporting week
- DMean time to detect, combined with the share of incidents detected before data loss or service impact
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Correct answer: DDetection timing relative to impact shows whether the team acts early enough to prevent damage. Unreviewed closures, email counts and meeting counts do not measure effectiveness.