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Free 020-100 practice test: 30 questions with answers
30 original questions for Security Essentials, drawn from every topic area. Answer each one to see whether you got it right and why. No sign-up.
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All 30 020-100 questions with answers
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024 Network and Service Security (6 questions)
Question 1
Which two measures reduce the exposure of an internal web application to the internet? (Choose two.)
- AExposing the database server directly on a public IP address
- BPlacing the application behind a reverse proxy in a DMZ
- CTurning off the firewall so that legitimate visitors are never blocked
- DRestricting inbound firewall rules to only the required TCP ports
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Correct answer: B, DA reverse proxy in a DMZ limits direct contact between the internet and internal systems, and restrictive inbound rules allow only the ports the service needs. Publishing the database directly and disabling the firewall both increase exposure.
Question 2
A user types a company's website name into a browser, but the browser cannot reach the site until the name is turned into an address. Which network service performs this translation?
- ADynamic Host Configuration Protocol, which assigns IP address leases
- BDomain Name System, which maps host names to IP addresses
- CNetwork Time Protocol, which synchronizes the clocks of hosts
- DSimple Mail Transfer Protocol, which relays outgoing email messages
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Correct answer: BDNS resolves host names into IP addresses so that clients can connect. DHCP hands out addresses and settings, NTP keeps clocks synchronized, and SMTP moves email, so none of the other services performs name-to-address lookup.
Question 3
On a shared office LAN, an attacker sends forged ARP replies so that a workstation sends traffic meant for the gateway to the attacker's machine instead. What attack is this?
- AA SYN flood that exhausts the server's connection table
- BARP spoofing that places the attacker in a man-in-the-middle position
- CA DNS zone transfer that copies every record from a name server
- DA port scan that maps which network services are open
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Correct answer: BARP spoofing poisons the ARP caches of hosts so that traffic is redirected through the attacker, creating a man-in-the-middle position. A SYN flood is a denial-of-service attack, a zone transfer discloses DNS data, and a port scan is reconnaissance; none redirects traffic through the attacker.
Question 4
Which statement correctly describes a stateful firewall?
- AIt tracks connection state and allows replies for established sessions
- BIt encrypts every packet that crosses between internal and external networks
- CIt assigns IP addresses to devices that join the internal network
- DIt caches frequently requested web pages to speed up repeat visits
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Correct answer: AA stateful firewall keeps a table of active connections and permits reply packets that belong to them, while still blocking unsolicited inbound traffic. Encryption belongs to protocols such as TLS or IPsec, address assignment is DHCP's job, and page caching is a proxy or cache function.
Question 5
A remote employee must reach the company's internal file server from an untrusted public Wi-Fi network. Which solution best protects the confidentiality of the traffic between the laptop and the corporate network?
- ARandomizing the laptop's MAC address every day for privacy
- BEnabling guest file sharing so that the server accepts anonymous connections
- CSending the files as compressed archives through a public messaging app
- DA VPN tunnel that encrypts traffic to a gateway on the corporate network
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Correct answer: DA VPN encrypts traffic across the untrusted network and terminates inside the corporate perimeter, protecting confidentiality in transit. MAC randomization only changes a hardware identifier, anonymous file sharing weakens access control, and compression does not encrypt the data.
Question 6
A journalist wants to read a news site without letting the site, or an observer on the local network, easily learn her network location. Which approach fits this goal best?
- AInstalling a browser extension that blocks all advertising
- BRouting traffic through a Tor circuit of several relays
- CSwitching to a faster DNS resolver to speed up page loads
- DEnabling browser password saving for the news site
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Correct answer: BTor sends traffic through several relays using layered encryption, so no single relay knows both the client and the destination. Ad blocking, a faster resolver and saved passwords do not hide the user's location, and a faster resolver does not change what the local network can observe about the user.
022 Encryption (6 questions)
Question 7
A developer must encrypt a 2 GB backup archive on a server. The same small operations team will restore it using one shared secret key. Which cryptographic approach is most suitable?
- AAsymmetric encryption using each member's public key
- BOne-way hashing with a salted SHA-256 digest
- CDigital signatures created with an RSA private key
- DSymmetric encryption with one shared secret key
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Correct answer: DSymmetric encryption is fast enough for bulk data and suits a single shared key used for both encryption and decryption. Asymmetric encryption is far slower for large files and is usually reserved for key exchange, hashing cannot be reversed to restore the archive, and signatures provide integrity and authenticity rather than confidentiality.
Question 8
Which two statements about public key infrastructure are correct? (Choose two.)
- AThe private key must be published with the certificate so clients can verify it
- BA certificate authority signs certificates that bind a public key to an identity
- CRevoked certificates stay trusted until their expiration dates pass naturally
- DClients validate a certificate by checking its issuer chain and validity dates
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Correct answer: B, DA certificate authority vouches for the binding between a public key and an identity by signing the certificate, and clients check the chain back to a trusted root and the validity period. Private keys must never be published, and revoked certificates must be rejected before they expire, which is why revocation mechanisms exist.
Question 9
A company's public web server presents a TLS certificate that expired last week. Visitors see a security warning in their browsers, but the site still loads. What is the most accurate explanation?
- AThe web server has stopped accepting plain HTTP requests on port 80
- BThe domain registration has expired and the DNS zone has been removed
- CThe browser has blocked every page from the site as a malware precaution
- DThe certificate's validity period has ended, so browsers no longer trust it
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Correct answer: DBrowsers check the validity period of a certificate and warn when it has expired, which is exactly what the visitors see. Closing port 80 or removing a DNS zone would cause different failures such as connection errors or name resolution failures, and a browser does not block every page from a site because a certificate has lapsed.
Question 10
A legal team wants to exchange confidential messages with outside partners using their existing email clients, which already hold certificates issued by the company's certificate authority. Which standard fits this need?
- AHTTP Strict Transport Security, which forces encrypted web sessions
- BIPsec tunnel mode, which encrypts all traffic between two gateways
- CS/MIME, which uses X.509 certificates to encrypt and sign email
- DSSH agent forwarding, which relays login requests to a remote host
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Correct answer: CS/MIME is the standard for encrypting and signing email with X.509 certificates, which fits clients that already hold such certificates. HSTS only applies to web browsing, IPsec works at the network layer between gateways, and SSH agent forwarding has nothing to do with email content protection.
Question 11
Which statement best describes full-disk encryption on a company laptop?
- AIt protects data in transit by encrypting packets sent over the wireless network
- BIt protects data at rest, so stored files are unreadable if the drive is removed
- CIt prevents malware from running by verifying each application's digital signature
- DIt guarantees that authorized users cannot accidentally delete or modify their files
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Correct answer: BFull-disk encryption protects data at rest, so a stolen or removed drive yields unreadable data without the key. Protecting data in transit is the job of protocols such as TLS or VPNs, encryption does not prevent authorized users from changing their own files, and verifying application signatures is a code-signing or application-control feature.
Question 12
A company encrypts its customer database, but the encryption key file sits in the same server directory as the encrypted files. An auditor flags this design. What is the core problem?
- AKeys stored alongside the data they protect can be stolen together with it
- BEncryption cannot be applied to tables that contain numeric values
- CEncryption always slows database queries until they fail entirely
- DEncryption automatically disables the database audit logging feature
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Correct answer: AIf an attacker who obtains the files also obtains the key, the encryption protects nothing, so keys should be separated from the data and held in a key management system or hardware security module. The other options make false universal claims, since databases can encrypt numeric columns and encryption does not disable audit logging.
023 Device and Storage Security (6 questions)
Question 13
An administrator wants to confirm that a workstation's boot loader and kernel have not been tampered with before the operating system starts. Which firmware feature is designed for this purpose?
- ADisk quotas, which limit how much space each user may consume
- BNetwork Address Translation, which hides internal IP addresses
- CUEFI Secure Boot, which checks signatures on boot components
- DLog rotation, which archives older system log files
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Correct answer: CUEFI Secure Boot verifies that boot loaders and related components carry trusted signatures before they run. Disk quotas, network address translation and log rotation are useful administration or networking features but do nothing to verify the integrity of boot code.
Question 14
What is the primary purpose of a Trusted Platform Module (TPM) in a computer?
- AAccelerating video rendering for graphics-intensive desktop applications
- BStoring cryptographic keys and platform measurements in tamper-resistant hardware
- CProviding a wireless link to nearby peripheral input devices
- DCooling the processor during sustained heavy computing workloads
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Correct answer: BA TPM is a dedicated security chip that protects keys and records measurements used for measured boot and attestation. Graphics acceleration, wireless peripherals and cooling are handled by other hardware, so they are not the TPM's role.
Question 15
A web form builds an SQL statement by concatenating user input, and a tester enters a quote character that changes the query's meaning. Which change addresses the root cause?
- AUse parameterized queries so user input is never treated as SQL code
- BHide database error messages from the browser so attackers see less
- CAdd a CAPTCHA so that only human visitors can submit the form
- DIncrease the database connection timeout so attacks are cut off sooner
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Correct answer: AParameterized queries keep the SQL structure separate from the data, so input cannot change the query, which is the root cause of SQL injection. Longer timeouts, hidden error messages and CAPTCHAs may reduce some exposure, but none of them stops crafted input from altering the query.
Question 16
Which two measures reduce the impact of malware on user workstations? (Choose two.)
- AAllowing macros to run in all office documents by default
- BDisabling operating system updates so that drivers remain unchanged
- CRunning daily work under standard accounts without administrator rights
- DEnforcing application allowlisting that blocks unapproved executables
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Correct answer: C, DStandard accounts limit what malware can change system-wide, and allowlisting prevents unapproved executables from starting. Disabling updates leaves known vulnerabilities open, and enabling macros everywhere is a common malware delivery path.
Question 17
A ransomware attack encrypts a company's file server and the backup server, which stays online and mapped as a network drive. Which backup design would have best protected the data's availability?
- AA second backup job that writes to the same network drive every hour
- BCompressing every backup file to reduce the storage space it uses
- COffline or immutable copies stored separately from the production network
- DScheduling backups to run during the file server's busiest hours
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Correct answer: COffline or immutable backups cannot be modified by an attacker who has reached the production network, so a clean restore point survives. A backup that writes to a mapped drive stays reachable, compression does not protect data, and running backups at peak hours mainly hurts performance.
Question 18
What is the main purpose of RAID level 1 in a storage system?
- AKeeping an identical copy of data on a second disk to survive one disk failure
- BStoring parity information so that lost blocks can be rebuilt from it
- CEncrypting every block on the disks with a hardware-held key
- DStriping data across disks to speed up reads with no redundancy
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Correct answer: ARAID 1 mirrors data across disks, so the array keeps working when one disk fails. Striping without redundancy describes RAID 0, parity-based rebuilding describes RAID 5 or 6, and encryption is not a RAID function. RAID also does not replace backups because it protects against disk failure, not deletion or ransomware.
025 Identity and Privacy (6 questions)
Question 19
A bank wants customers to sign in with something they know and also a one-time code generated by a phone app. Which approach describes this design?
- ASingle sign-on, which reuses one login across several applications
- BRole-based access control, which grants rights according to job function
- CMulti-factor authentication, combining two or more independent factors
- DMandatory access control, which enforces labels set by the system
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Correct answer: CUsing a password plus a possession-based one-time code is multi-factor authentication. Single sign-on concerns reusing one login across services, while role-based and mandatory access control are authorization models that decide what a user may do after authentication.
Question 20
Why should a web service store user passwords as salted hashes rather than as plain text?
- ASo support staff can read forgotten passwords back to the account owner
- BSo users may choose weaker passwords because the hash is strong
- CSo a stolen database does not directly reveal the passwords users typed
- DSo every account on the service shares one common password hash
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Correct answer: CA salted hash is one-way, so a leaked database does not reveal the original passwords directly, though weak passwords can still be cracked. Support staff should not be able to read passwords, a strong hash does not justify weak passwords, and a unique salt means identical passwords produce different hashes.
Question 21
A weather app asks for contacts access and precise GPS location to show a forecast. A privacy reviewer recommends requesting only approximate city-level location. Which privacy principle does this recommendation reflect?
- AData mirroring, copying user records to every regional server
- BData deduplication, removing repeated copies of stored files
- CData encryption, scrambling stored values so only keys can read them
- DData minimization, collecting only the data needed for the purpose
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Correct answer: DData minimization means collecting only what a stated purpose requires, and city-level location is enough for a forecast. Mirroring, deduplication and encryption are storage or security techniques that do not limit what the app collects in the first place.
Question 22
Which two practices reduce the damage a compromised user account can cause? (Choose two.)
- AGranting only the permissions that the user's role actually requires
- BSharing one administrator login among the whole support team
- CReviewing regularly and removing unused accounts and group memberships
- DGiving every new account read access to all file servers by default
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Correct answer: A, CLimiting permissions to what the role needs and removing stale accounts shrink what an attacker can reach through any single account. Shared administrator logins and default broad access make a single compromise far more damaging.
Question 23
A company uses fingerprint scanners at building doors and wants to measure how often an impostor is wrongly granted entry. Which biometric metric answers this question?
- AFalse acceptance rate, the share of impostors wrongly accepted
- BFalse rejection rate, the share of genuine users wrongly refused
- CCrossover error rate, the point where two error rates are equal
- DThroughput rate, the number of comparisons the scanner completes per second
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Correct answer: AFalse acceptance rate measures how often an impostor is incorrectly matched and accepted. False rejection rate measures genuine users being refused, crossover error rate is the point where the two errors are equal, and throughput measures speed rather than accuracy.
Question 24
A company wants employees to sign in once against its corporate directory and then reach several cloud applications without separate passwords for each. Which approach fits best?
- AShared generic accounts used by every department for cloud access
- BDisabling authentication on cloud applications to speed up access
- CLocal password files copied to each cloud application's server
- DSingle sign-on federated through the corporate identity provider
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Correct answer: DFederated single sign-on lets applications trust the corporate identity provider after one authentication, which reduces password sprawl. Shared accounts remove accountability, copied password files spread credentials, and disabling authentication removes access control altogether.
021 Security Concepts (6 questions)
Question 25
A small company's IT manager lists every server, laptop and customer database, notes who owns each one, and estimates the cost of losing each. Which security activity does this work represent most directly?
- APenetration testing of external services
- BRisk assessment of organizational assets
- CIncident response containment planning
- DSecurity awareness training for new hires
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Correct answer: BListing assets, their owners and the impact of losing them is the asset identification and impact analysis at the core of a risk assessment. Penetration testing probes for exploitable weaknesses, incident response handles events already underway, and awareness training educates people, so none of those builds the asset and impact inventory.
Question 26
A company decides to buy a cyber insurance policy that pays for ransomware recovery costs instead of adding new technical controls right now. Which risk treatment option does this decision represent?
- ARisk avoidance by stopping the activity
- BRisk mitigation through new technical controls
- CRisk acceptance with no further action
- DRisk transfer to an external party
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Correct answer: DInsurance shifts the financial impact of a loss to a third party, which is risk transfer. Avoidance would stop the risky activity entirely, mitigation would reduce likelihood or impact with controls, and acceptance would leave the risk untreated, so the other three do not describe this decision.
Question 27
A penetration tester hired for a bank's web application finds a flaw that exposes customer records. She is tempted to download a sample to prove the issue. What is the most appropriate action under ethical conduct for security professionals?
- ADownload a small sample so the report contains real evidence
- BPublish the flaw online so the bank is forced to fix it quickly
- CStop accessing the data, record the flaw with minimal evidence, and report it
- DKeep testing the same flaw until all customer data is catalogued
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Correct answer: CEthical testers stay within the agreed scope, limit access to what is needed to demonstrate the issue, and report it responsibly to the client. Downloading customer data exceeds what is needed, publishing the flaw is irresponsible disclosure, and cataloguing all the data goes well beyond authorized testing.
Question 28
In a security governance structure, which role is typically responsible for setting the organization's risk appetite and approving the funding for controls?
- AThe helpdesk technician who resets forgotten passwords
- BThe penetration tester hired for the annual assessment
- CThe application developer who writes the login module
- DSenior management, such as the executive team or board
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Correct answer: DSenior management and the board set the acceptable level of risk and allocate budget, since they are accountable for the organization's exposure. Technicians, testers and developers implement or test controls but do not set the organization's risk appetite.
Question 29
An IT administrator with broad system access is asked by a department manager to read a colleague's private mailbox to check on their work, with no investigation or legal request in place. What is the most appropriate response?
- ADecline, and route the request through the documented HR or legal approval process
- BRead only the subject lines so that the request is technically limited
- CRead the mailbox quickly and report back without saving any notes
- DForward the mailbox contents to the manager's personal account for review
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Correct answer: AEthical administrators respect privacy and act only under authorized, documented processes, so refusing and escalating through HR or legal channels is correct. Reading subject lines, reading quickly without notes, or forwarding the mailbox all still expose private communications without authorization.
Question 30
A risk register rates each risk by how probable it is and how severe its consequences would be. Which general relationship describes this qualitative approach?
- ARisk equals the number of vulnerabilities multiplied by the number of users
- BRisk equals the likelihood of an event multiplied by its impact
- CRisk equals the number of controls subtracted from the number of threats
- DRisk equals the total cost of controls divided by the number of assets
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Correct answer: BA common way to express risk in qualitative and semi-quantitative assessments is likelihood multiplied by impact, which ranks risks for treatment. The other formulas have no standard meaning in risk assessment, since they combine unrelated counts, costs or ratios.