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Free ITIL 4 Foundation practice test: 30 questions with answers

30 original questions for ITIL 4 Foundation, drawn from every topic area. Answer each one to see whether you got it right and why. No sign-up.

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ITIL 4 Foundation exam guide: topics, cost and format

All 30 ITIL 4 Foundation questions with answers

The same questions as the test above, grouped by exam topic. Open any question to see the answer and explanation.

Service management practices (3 questions)

  1. Question 1

    Which practice is the primary one for restoring normal service operation as quickly as possible after an unplanned interruption?

    1. AProblem management, which identifies the root causes of recurring incidents and records known errors
    2. BChange enablement, which ensures that changes are assessed and authorized before they are made live
    3. CService level management, which sets and monitors targets with consumers and reports on them regularly
    4. DIncident management, which restores normal service operation as quickly as possible after an interruption
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: D

    Incident management is the practice focused on restoring service after an interruption, while problem management looks for causes. Change enablement and service level management support different outcomes.

  2. Question 2

    Which practice is most closely associated with finding and removing the root cause of recurring incidents?

    1. AService desk, which acts as the single point of contact for users who report issues and requests
    2. BIncident management, which restores service as quickly as possible after each interruption occurs
    3. CProblem management, which identifies root causes, records known errors, and supports permanent fixes
    4. DMonitoring and event management, which detects and classifies events generated by systems and services
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: C

    Problem management analyzes incidents to find root causes and drive permanent fixes, which is why it addresses recurring incidents. Incident management restores service, the service desk handles contact, and monitoring detects events.

  3. Question 3

    What is a standard change?

    1. AAn emergency change applied outside the normal process to fix an outage that has already affected users
    2. BA pre-authorized, low-risk change that follows a well-understood procedure and needs no further approval
    3. CA change that must always be carried out by a vendor engineer working on the client's premises
    4. DA change that the change advisory board reviews individually for every release that goes into production
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: B

    Standard changes are pre-authorized, low-risk and follow an established procedure, so they can be executed without individual approval. Emergency changes, board-reviewed changes and vendor-only work describe other situations.

Service value system (3 questions)

  1. Question 4

    Which component of the service value system describes the operating model that turns demand into value through activities?

    1. AGuiding principles, which provide recommendations that apply in any context the organization works in
    2. BContinual improvement, which reviews performance and identifies improvement opportunities across the system
    3. CService value chain, which defines the activities from opportunity to value realization for consumers
    4. DGovernance, which evaluates, directs, and monitors the organization's direction and decisions over time
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: C

    The service value chain is the operating model of the service value system, linking the activities that move from opportunity to realized value. The other components support the chain rather than describe the operating model itself.

  2. Question 5

    Which term describes the perceived benefits, usefulness, and importance of something to stakeholders?

    1. AValue, meaning the perceived benefits, usefulness, and importance of something to stakeholders
    2. BUtility, which is the fitness for purpose of a service in removing constraints or supporting performance
    3. CCustomer experience, which is the way a consumer feels while using a service during its daily operation
    4. DWarranty, which is the assurance that a service will be available, capable, and secure when needed by users
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: A

    In ITIL 4, value is the perceived benefits, usefulness and importance of something to stakeholders. Utility and warranty describe the two components of service value, while customer experience describes how users feel.

  3. Question 6

    Which term describes the fitness for purpose of a service, meaning how well it removes constraints or supports performance?

    1. AUtility, the functionality of a service that removes constraints or supports the consumer's performance
    2. BWarranty, the assurance that a service will be available, capable, and secure enough for its use
    3. COutput, the tangible result that a service produces at the end of a process in the value chain
    4. DOutcome, the business result that the consumer expects from using the service in its context
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: A

    Utility is the functionality of a service, meaning its fitness for purpose, and warranty is the assurance of its availability, capacity and security. Outputs and outcomes describe results rather than fitness for purpose.

Guiding principles (2 questions)

  1. Question 7

    A team is designing a new service and wants to start with a small pilot, learn quickly, and adjust based on what users report. Which guiding principle applies?

    1. AFocus on value, keeping every activity tied to outcomes that matter to stakeholders and consumers
    2. BThink and work holistically, so that the service fits the whole system it will operate within
    3. COptimize and automate, making the best use of resources and automating repeatable tasks in the service
    4. DProgress iteratively with feedback, starting small and adjusting based on what each cycle teaches the team
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: D

    Progressing iteratively with feedback means working in small steps and using each cycle's learning to adjust. The other principles are valid, but they do not describe the pilot-and-learn approach in the scenario.

  2. Question 8

    Which guiding principle recommends that work begin from the current state, using existing services, resources, and measured data rather than assumptions?

    1. AKeep it simple and practical, using the least effort needed to achieve the outcome the consumer expects
    2. BFocus on value, keeping every activity tied to outcomes for stakeholders and the organization
    3. CCollaborate and promote visibility, so that work, decisions, and information are shared openly across teams
    4. DStart where you are, using existing services and measured data rather than assumptions about the current state
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: D

    Start where you are means building on what already exists and using real data, rather than designing from assumptions. The other principles describe value, collaboration and simplicity, which are also important but do not state this recommendation.

Service value chain (2 questions)

  1. Question 9

    Which value chain activity focuses on understanding the current and future needs of consumers and maintaining relationships with them?

    1. APlan, which ensures a shared understanding of direction and status across the value chain activities
    2. BEngage, which keeps understanding of stakeholder needs current and maintains relationships with them
    3. CDesign and transition, which ensures that services meet expectations for quality, cost, and time
    4. DObtain or build, which acquires or creates service components when they are needed by the service
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: B

    Engage is the value chain activity that keeps stakeholder needs understood and relationships maintained, which provides the input for the rest of the chain. The other activities plan, design and obtain components rather than managing stakeholder relationships.

  2. Question 10

    Which value chain activity ensures that new or changed services are released into operation with agreed quality?

    1. ADesign and transition, which ensures that new or changed services are released into operation with quality
    2. BImprove, which identifies opportunities to improve services and products over time for consumers
    3. CEngage, which keeps understanding of stakeholder needs current and maintains relationships with them
    4. DPlan, which keeps a shared understanding of direction and status across all value chain activities
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: A

    Design and transition ensures that services are designed and released with agreed quality, cost and timing. The other activities plan, improve or engage stakeholders rather than release services.

Service management concepts (2 questions)

  1. Question 11

    A customer buys a cloud storage service. Which term describes the result the customer wants to achieve by using it?

    1. AOutcome, the result that the customer wants to achieve, such as securely keeping and retrieving records
    2. BWarranty, the assurance that the storage service will be available, secure, and capable when it is needed
    3. CUtility, the functionality the storage service provides, such as capacity and file versioning features
    4. DOutput, the tangible result that the storage platform produces when a file is saved for the customer
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: A

    An outcome is the result a stakeholder wants to achieve, and services exist to enable outcomes. Outputs are what the service produces, utility is its functionality and warranty is the assurance of its quality.

  2. Question 12

    Which term describes the value a consumer perceives from the combination of a service's utility and its warranty?

    1. AService offering, which bundles the outcomes, costs, and risks of a service into one package for buyers
    2. BService level, which describes the targets agreed for availability, capacity, and response time in the contract
    3. CService desk, which provides the consumer with a single point of contact when support is needed by users
    4. DService value, which describes the value a consumer perceives from the combination of utility and warranty
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: D

    Service value describes the value a consumer perceives from utility and warranty combined. Service offering is the package sold to consumers, service level is a target, and the service desk is a practice.

Continual improvement (2 questions)

  1. Question 13

    In the continual improvement model, which question is answered by defining the goals the improvement should reach?

    1. AWhere are we now, based on the current measurements and evidence about how the service performs today?
    2. BHow do we keep the momentum going after the improvement has been delivered to consumers and users?
    3. CWhere do we want to be, in terms of the goals agreed with stakeholders for the service?
    4. DDid we get there, and what evidence shows that the target was reached by the improvement work?
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: C

    The continual improvement model asks where the organization wants to be, and this step defines the target state in agreed goals. The other questions address the current state, sustaining momentum and verifying results.

  2. Question 14

    Which type of measure is most useful for judging whether a service delivers value to consumers?

    1. AThe number of change requests closed by the team during the reporting period for the quarter
    2. BA count of servers patched during the month across all of the company's data centers and regions
    3. CAn outcome-based measure showing whether consumers achieve the results they need from the service
    4. DThe hours of overtime worked by the operations team during the month across the whole group
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: C

    Outcome-based measures show whether the service helps consumers reach their goals, which is the real test of value. Output counts such as patches, closed changes and overtime measure activity, not value.

Four dimensions of service management (2 questions)

  1. Question 15

    Which dimension covers the skills, culture, leadership, and roles needed to deliver and support services?

    1. AOrganizations and people, covering roles, skills, culture, and leadership needed for the service
    2. BInformation and technology, covering the data, knowledge, and tools that support service delivery
    3. CPartners and suppliers, covering contracts and relationships with external providers of components
    4. DValue streams and processes, covering how work is organized and sequenced to create value for consumers
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: A

    The organizations and people dimension addresses roles, skills, culture and leadership, which determine whether a service can be run well. The other dimensions cover technology, external partners and the processes that organize the work.

  2. Question 16

    Which dimension addresses the contracts, relationships, and dependencies with external suppliers and partners?

    1. AOrganizations and people, covering roles, skills, culture, and leadership across the organization
    2. BValue streams and processes, covering how work flows from request to delivered outcome for consumers
    3. CInformation and technology, covering data, knowledge, and the tools that support the services used
    4. DPartners and suppliers, covering contracts and relationships with the external providers the service depends on
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: D

    The partners and suppliers dimension covers external providers, contracts and their relationships, which affect how a service is delivered. The other dimensions cover people, information and processes.

General management practices (2 questions)

  1. Question 17

    Which general management practice ensures that the organization's investments in services and products are selected and managed to deliver the best value overall?

    1. AArchitecture management, which defines the structure of systems and their components over time for the organization
    2. BPortfolio management, which ensures the organization's investments are selected and managed to deliver the best value
    3. CInformation security management, which protects confidentiality, integrity, and availability of information in the organization
    4. DWorkforce and talent management, which manages the roles, skills, and development of the people who deliver services
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: B

    Portfolio management ensures that investments in services, products and projects are selected and balanced to deliver the best value. Architecture, security and workforce practices support the organization but do not select investments.

  2. Question 18

    Which general management practice deals with the roles, skills, competencies, and development of people, so that the organization can deliver services?

    1. ARisk management, which identifies and assesses risks and decides how each one should be treated
    2. BProject management, which plans and controls the work of a time-bound endeavor with a defined end date
    3. CWorkforce and talent management, which covers roles, competencies, development, and the capability of people
    4. DService financial management, which budgets for services and tracks the costs and value of service delivery
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: C

    Workforce and talent management addresses roles, skills and development of people, which determine the capability to deliver services. Project, financial and risk management address other aspects of the organization.

Service level management (2 questions)

  1. Question 19

    What is the purpose of a service level agreement (SLA)?

    1. ATo list the technical configuration items that support a service and record them in the configuration database
    2. BTo define the internal budget that the service desk can spend across each financial year of operation
    3. CTo document the agreed service targets and responsibilities between a service provider and a consumer
    4. DTo record every change made to a service during its operational life so that auditors can review them
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: C

    An SLA documents the agreed targets and responsibilities between provider and consumer, which sets expectations for the service. Configuration lists, budgets and change records are useful records but are not the purpose of an SLA.

  2. Question 20

    A provider reports that it is meeting its service level targets, but consumers are unhappy with the service. What should the provider do?

    1. ALower the targets so that the reported results look better and consumers become satisfied with the service
    2. BReview whether the targets reflect what consumers value, and agree improvements with the consumers as needed
    3. CIgnore the consumer feedback, since the contracted targets are the only measure of success for the service
    4. DStop reporting the results to consumers, since unhappy consumers do not need to see the figures at all
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: B

    Meeting targets does not guarantee satisfaction, so the targets should be reviewed against what consumers value and improvements agreed with them. Lowering targets, ignoring feedback and hiding results all weaken the relationship and the service.

Technical management practices (2 questions)

  1. Question 21

    Which technical management practice provides the design and maintenance of the infrastructure, platforms, and software that services run on?

    1. ADeployment management, which moves new or changed components into live environments after approval
    2. BService configuration management, which records configuration items and their relationships in the CMDB
    3. CSoftware development and management, which designs, builds, and maintains applications for consumers
    4. DInfrastructure and platform management, which manages the technology that services are built and run on
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: D

    Infrastructure and platform management is the technical practice concerned with the technology that services run on. Deployment, software development and configuration practices address other technical or service activities.

  2. Question 22

    Which technical practice is most concerned with designing, building, and maintaining software applications that meet consumer needs?

    1. AInfrastructure and platform management, which manages the technology platforms that services are run on
    2. BSoftware development and management, which designs, builds, and maintains applications that meet consumer needs
    3. CDeployment management, which moves new or changed components into live environments once they are approved
    4. DMonitoring and event management, which detects and classifies events generated by systems and applications
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: B

    Software development and management covers designing, building and maintaining applications that meet consumer needs. Infrastructure, deployment and monitoring practices support those applications but do not build them.

Incident management (2 questions)

  1. Question 23

    During a major incident, the team restores a slow web application quickly with a workaround. What should happen next with the incident record?

    1. ARecord the workaround in the knowledge base, and refer the underlying cause to problem management for analysis
    2. BReopen the change record that caused the issue, and ask the change board to approve a rollback immediately
    3. CDelete the incident record, so that the monthly reports show no impact from the slowness that users experienced
    4. DClose the incident immediately, since the service is restored, and do not record the workaround for later use
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: A

    The workaround should be captured for reuse, and the underlying cause should be investigated through problem management to prevent recurrence. Closing without recording, deleting the record or assuming a change caused it all lose the learning.

  2. Question 24

    Which two statements about incident and problem records are correct? (Choose two.)

    1. AAn incident record can be linked to a problem record when the cause is still unknown
    2. BA problem record is closed as soon as the incident that triggered it has been closed
    3. CProblem records are opened only after a change has failed in production
    4. DIncident and problem records are the same record, managed under one identifier
    5. EA problem may have several linked incidents, and the link helps to show the impact
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: A, E

    Linking incidents to a problem while the cause is unknown, and recording how many incidents a problem affects, both help investigation and prioritization. Closing problems with incidents, opening problems only after failed changes and merging the records all misrepresent the practices.

Problem management (2 questions)

  1. Question 25

    What is a known error in problem management?

    1. AAn incident that has been resolved, closed, and archived in the service desk database without a root cause
    2. BA problem whose root cause has been identified and for which a workaround or fix has been documented
    3. CA request that the service desk has not yet classified, and which is waiting for assignment to a team
    4. DA change that has been rejected by the change authority and removed from the change calendar and schedule
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: B

    A known error is a problem with an identified root cause and a documented workaround or fix, which allows faster resolution of future incidents. The other items describe rejected changes, closed incidents or unclassified requests.

  2. Question 26

    Which two items are typically recorded in a known error record? (Choose two.)

    1. AThe root cause, once it has been identified by the problem team
    2. BThe personal opinion of the engineer about the vendor's support quality
    3. CThe workaround or fix that is available to restore the service
    4. DThe annual salary cost of the engineers who worked on the incident
    5. EThe colour scheme of the dashboard used by the service desk team
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: A, C

    A known error record holds the identified root cause and the workaround or fix, which lets the service desk restore service faster. Opinions, salaries and dashboard colours are not part of the record.

Practices (1 question)

  1. Question 27

    Which category of ITIL practices covers the practices that apply to the general management of any organization, such as strategy, finance, and workforce management?

    1. ATechnical management practices, which deal with the technology and infrastructure needed to support services
    2. BGeneral management practices, which apply to all types of organizations, such as strategy, finance, and workforce
    3. CService management practices, which handle the operational work of delivering services to consumers daily
    4. DOperational practices, which describe the day-to-day running of the infrastructure in the data center
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: B

    General management practices apply to organizations in general, including strategy, finance and workforce management. Technical and service management practices focus on technology and service delivery respectively.

Change enablement (1 question)

  1. Question 28

    A proposed change to a production database is assessed as high risk and affects many services. Which type of change should be used?

    1. AA standard change, which is pre-authorized and suitable for low-risk, repeatable work with no approval
    2. BA normal change, which needs a full assessment of risk and authorization before it can be implemented
    3. CAn emergency change, which is used only to restore service during an outage and skips the usual assessment
    4. DA model change, which is a low-risk template that can be run without any further assessment of the impact
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: B

    A high-risk change that affects many services needs a full assessment and authorization, which is the normal change route. Standard, emergency and model changes are for different risk levels or situations.

Service request management (1 question)

  1. Question 29

    Which description best matches the service request management practice?

    1. AFulfilling user requests for standard services or information through agreed procedures, such as a password reset
    2. BAuthorizing changes to production services after assessing their risk and impact on the consumers affected
    3. CRestoring normal service after an unplanned interruption as quickly as the team can, with minimal user impact
    4. DIdentifying the root causes of recurring incidents and recording known errors for the service desk to use
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: A

    Service request management fulfills standard user requests through agreed, often automated, procedures. Restoring service, authorizing changes and root cause analysis belong to other practices.

Organizational change management (1 question)

  1. Question 30

    Which factor is most important when introducing a new way of working into an organization, to help people adopt it?

    1. AAnnouncing the change in one email to all staff, and expecting everyone to adapt in the following week
    2. BKeeping the change secret until it is fully implemented, so that people do not resist it before it starts
    3. CEnforcing the change with penalties for anyone who continues to use the previous way of working
    4. DInvolving the people affected, explaining the benefits, and supporting them through the transition period
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: D

    Adoption improves when affected people are involved, understand the benefits and are supported during the transition. Announcements alone, penalties and secrecy each increase resistance rather than building commitment.