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30 original questions for Professional Agile Leadership (PAL I), drawn from every topic area. Answer each one to see whether you got it right and why. No sign-up.
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All 30 PAL I questions with answers
The same questions as the test above, grouped by exam topic. Open any question to see the answer and explanation.
Understanding and Applying the Scrum Framework (6 questions)
Question 1
A Scrum Team's Developers track their daily progress in a private spreadsheet that only the Scrum Master can open, so the Product Owner learns about slipping work only at the Sprint Review. Which empirical pillar is most directly violated?
- AAdaptation
- BInspection
- CPredictability of the forecast
- DTransparency
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Correct answer: DTransparency means the work and its progress must be visible to those responsible for the outcome, and here the Product Owner cannot see it. Inspection and adaptation depend on transparency, but the direct violation is of transparency. Predictability is not one of Scrum's three empirical pillars.
Question 2
When the Developers share early and in full the impediments that put the Sprint Goal at risk, which Scrum value is most directly being practised?
- AOpenness
- BFocus
- CCommitment to achieving the goals
- DRespect
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Correct answer: AOpenness means the team is candid about its work and its challenges, which early disclosure of impediments demonstrates. Respect concerns valuing each other's capabilities, Focus concerns concentrating on Sprint work, and Commitment concerns personally striving for the goals, so none of these fits as well.
Question 3
Which TWO statements about the Sprint Goal are correct? (Choose two.)
- AIt is created during Sprint Planning and gives the Sprint a single objective
- BIt is the list of every Product Backlog item the team must finish
- CIt explains to the Developers why they are building the Increment
- DIt is set by the Scrum Master and cannot be discussed with stakeholders
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Correct answer: A, CThe Sprint Goal is created during Sprint Planning as the single objective of the Sprint, and it explains to the Developers why they are building the Increment. A list of every backlog item belongs to the Sprint Backlog rather than the Sprint Goal, and the Sprint Goal is set by the whole Scrum Team, not by the Scrum Master alone.
Question 4
A large product group proposes splitting one Scrum Team into two smaller units: a Developers-only group with its own lead, and a second group that holds the Product Owner and Scrum Master roles. What is the best response based on the Scrum Guide?
- AApprove the split, since a Developers-only group with its own lead keeps the Scrum Team focused on delivery
- BKeep a single Scrum Team with no sub-teams or hierarchies, and address the coordination concern through other means
- CApprove the split only if each unit keeps its own Sprint Goal and its own Product Backlog
- DApprove the split, provided the Scrum Master leads the Developers-only group and reports to the Product Owner
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Correct answer: BThe Scrum Guide describes one Scrum Team made of a Product Owner, a Scrum Master and Developers, with no sub-teams or hierarchies. Each of the other options creates sub-teams or splits accountability, which conflicts with that structure.
Question 5
What is the primary purpose of the Sprint Review?
- ATo finalize the Definition of Done that the Scrum Team will use going forward
- BTo approve each Developer's individual performance for the Sprint and record it
- CTo assign tasks from the Sprint Backlog to named Developers for the next Sprint
- DTo inspect the Increment with stakeholders and adapt the Product Backlog
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Correct answer: DThe Sprint Review is where the Scrum Team and stakeholders inspect the Increment and collaboratively adapt the Product Backlog. Individual performance is not appraised at the Review, Developers choose their own work rather than being assigned it, and the Definition of Done is not finalized there.
Question 6
Halfway through a Sprint, the market shifts and the Sprint Goal no longer offers value. A Developer suggests cancelling the Sprint to start fresh. Who has the authority to cancel the Sprint?
- AThe Scrum Master, after consulting the Developers and key stakeholders
- BThe Developers, by a majority vote within the Scrum Team
- CThe Product Owner, who is the only role with that authority
- DAny Developer, once the Daily Scrum agrees to the change
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Correct answer: COnly the Product Owner has the authority to cancel a Sprint, although they may consult the Scrum Team first. The Scrum Master, individual Developers and team votes cannot cancel the Sprint under Scrum.
Developing People and Teams (6 questions)
Question 7
A team manager begins assigning each Developer a specific task every morning and approving every technical decision before work starts. The team's delivery slows. What should the manager do to restore self-managing behaviour?
- AAssign tasks each morning, so that every Developer stays focused on the Sprint Goal and avoids overlap
- BLet the Developers decide how to deliver the Sprint Backlog and coach them when they ask for help
- CApprove each technical decision, so the Increment meets the expectations of the wider organization
- DGive the Product Owner final say over each Developer's daily task allocation
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Correct answer: BA self-managing team decides internally how to deliver its work, so the manager should step back and coach rather than direct. The other options keep the manager or Product Owner in control of daily task and technical decisions, which is the very pattern that slowed the team.
Question 8
Why are Scrum Teams described as self-managing?
- AThey decide internally who does what, when and how, with no external direction of their work
- BThey receive a fixed task list from the Product Owner and carry it out in the order given
- CThey report each Daily Scrum outcome to a steering committee for formal approval before the next day begins
- DTheir Scrum Master chooses every team member and sets the schedule for each Sprint
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Correct answer: AThe Scrum Guide says Scrum Teams are self-managing, meaning they internally decide who does what, when and how. The other options describe external direction, approval or assignment, which Scrum does not prescribe.
Question 9
During a Sprint Retrospective, two confident participants dominate the discussion and several quieter members stop contributing. As the facilitator, what is the most effective first step?
- AAsk every person to write their observations silently before the group discusses them
- BAsk the two dominant participants to stop speaking and end the discussion early
- CSchedule one-to-one interviews with the two dominant participants and skip the group session
- DSummarize the team's findings yourself so that the session finishes on time
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Correct answer: ASilent individual writing before discussion gives quieter people an equal chance to contribute and is a standard facilitation technique. Silencing participants, taking over the summary, or replacing the group session with interviews each weakens the team's ownership of its retrospective.
Question 10
Which facilitation behaviour best keeps a team in charge of its own decisions?
- APresenting the solution the facilitator prefers, then asking the team to agree
- BSetting the agenda in advance and refusing any changes during the session
- CAsking open questions that help the team reach its own conclusions
- DRecording every comment and summarizing the outcome personally at the end
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Correct answer: CA good facilitator stays neutral on content and uses questions so the group reaches and owns its conclusions. Pushing a preferred solution, rigidly fixing the agenda, or personally owning the summary all move decision-making away from the team.
Question 11
A Developer has deep expertise in a component, is highly motivated, and wants to own the design decisions for it. Under situational leadership, which style best fits this person?
- ATelling, with close step-by-step direction on each task
- BSelling, with the leader explaining the reasons behind each decision
- CDelegating, with the decisions handed over to the Developer
- DParticipating, with the leader and Developer sharing decisions together
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Correct answer: CDelegating suits people with high competence and high commitment, who can take decisions on their own in situational leadership. Telling and selling suit people who need more direction, and participating suits capable people whose commitment varies.
Question 12
Which leadership approach focuses first on serving the team's needs so that its members can grow and perform?
- ACommand and control, with rules set centrally and enforced by managers
- BServant leadership, where the leader's priority is removing obstacles for the team
- CTransactional leadership, based on rewards for hitting predefined targets
- DAutocratic leadership, where the leader makes decisions without consulting others
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Correct answer: BServant leadership puts the team's needs and growth first, with the leader removing obstacles and supporting people. Command and control, transactional rewards and autocratic decisions all centre the leader's authority rather than the team's development.
Managing Products with Agility (6 questions)
Question 13
A team usually has about 12 items in progress at any time and finishes about 4 items per week. Assuming a stable flow, which average cycle time does Little's Law predict?
- AAbout 8 weeks, found by subtracting throughput from work in progress
- BAbout 3 weeks, found by dividing work in progress by throughput
- CAbout 16 weeks, found by adding work in progress to throughput
- DAbout one-third of a week, found by dividing throughput by work in progress
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Correct answer: BLittle's Law states that average cycle time equals work in progress divided by throughput, so 12 divided by 4 gives about 3 weeks in a stable flow. The other answers use subtraction, addition or an inverted division, none of which matches the law.
Question 14
A Product Owner must tell stakeholders when a release will be ready. Stakeholders want one date, but the team's throughput varies widely from Sprint to Sprint. What is the most responsible way to forecast?
- ACommit to the earliest date from the team's best Sprint so that no one is disappointed later, and hold the team to it
- BPresent a range of likely completion dates with confidence levels, and state the assumptions behind them
- CPromise the average date and absorb any overrun by reducing quality checks
- DRefuse to forecast until all uncertainty has been removed from the plan
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Correct answer: BProbabilistic forecasts show a range of possible dates with confidence levels, which is honest about variability and easy to update as data arrives. Committing to the best case or the average hides the spread, and refusing to forecast leaves stakeholders with no planning information.
Question 15
Which TWO statements about forecasting in agile delivery are correct? (Choose two.)
- AProbabilistic forecasts express completion dates as ranges with confidence levels
- BA single fixed date removes uncertainty from the release plan
- CForecasts should be revisited as new throughput data becomes available
- DVelocity-based dates are always more reliable than throughput-based ranges
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Correct answer: A, CProbabilistic forecasts show ranges with confidence levels, and they should be updated as new throughput data arrives. A single fixed date hides uncertainty rather than removing it, and velocity-based dates are not always more reliable than throughput-based forecasts.
Question 16
Which description of product value best matches agile product management?
- AThe number of features the team delivers in each Sprint, measured by the completed user stories and their size
- BThe total story points the Developers complete across all Sprints of a release
- CThe number of releases published each quarter, as a sign of delivery speed
- DThe outcomes that customers and the organization gain from the product, not the volume of output
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Correct answer: DIn agile product management, value is judged by the outcomes the product creates for customers and the organization. Counting features, story points or releases measures output, which can rise even when no value is created.
Question 17
Which statement correctly distinguishes customers from users when a Product Owner is thinking about stakeholders?
- ACustomers buy or fund the product, while users are the people who operate or use it
- BCustomers are always internal staff, while users are always paying external buyers of the product
- CUsers decide the product's budget, while customers only report bugs after release
- DCustomers and users are always the same group, so one set of needs covers both
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Correct answer: ACustomers purchase or fund the product, while users operate or consume it, and the two groups can differ, so a Product Owner must consider both. The other options reverse those roles or claim the two groups are always identical.
Question 18
Stakeholders want to see whether the release scope is growing faster than the team is completing work. Which chart makes this visible most directly?
- AA burndown chart, which plots only the remaining work against time
- BA Gantt chart, which lists task start and end dates for each activity
- CA burnup chart, which plots completed work and total scope against time
- DA pie chart of story points by team member, showing each share of the total effort
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Correct answer: CA burnup chart shows completed work and total scope separately over time, so growth in scope is visible next to progress. A burndown chart shows only remaining work, which can hide scope changes, while Gantt and pie charts do not show release scope trends.
Developing and Delivering Products Professionally (6 questions)
Question 19
In an agile team, what does emergent architecture mean?
- AThe architecture is fixed by a single architect before any code is written and never revisited
- BThe system's design evolves through small, tested increments instead of being fully specified up front
- CThe vendor's platform sets the architecture, and the team adapts its work to fit that platform
- DThe architecture is documented automatically from the source code, so no design decisions need to be made or recorded at all
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Correct answer: BEmergent architecture arises as the team builds and refactors small, tested increments, so design decisions are made and revised as evidence arrives. The other options describe up-front design, vendor-defined structure or the claim that no design decisions are needed.
Question 20
A team skips automated tests to meet a Sprint deadline and records a note to add them later. Which concept does this shortcut best illustrate?
- AScope creep, where new requirements are added to the Sprint without review
- BEmergent design, where the structure of the code evolves through small changes
- CTechnical debt, where a deliberate shortcut creates future rework and risk
- DContinuous integration, where code changes are merged into a shared branch frequently
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Correct answer: CTechnical debt is the future cost created by choosing a faster, lower-quality path now, and skipped tests noted for later are a typical example. Scope creep, emergent design and continuous integration describe other practices or problems and do not capture a deliberate quality shortcut.
Question 21
At the Sprint Review, a Product Backlog item is shown to stakeholders, but it does not meet the Definition of Done because security testing was skipped. How should the team treat it?
- ADo not count it as Done, and return it to the Product Backlog for later consideration
- BCount it as Done since stakeholders have already seen it working
- CRelease it to production now and schedule the missing security testing for a later Sprint, to keep the release on time
- DMark it as Done in the next Sprint, after the Scrum Master approves the exception
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Correct answer: AOnly work that meets the Definition of Done counts as Done, so an item that skipped required security testing is not complete and returns to the Product Backlog. Counting it, releasing it untested, or approving the exception undermines the commitment to the Definition of Done.
Question 22
In test-driven development, what happens first in each small development cycle?
- AProduction code is written first, and tests are added at the end of the Sprint
- BThe Product Owner approves the design before any test is written or changed
- CManual test scripts are signed off by stakeholders before any coding begins
- DA failing automated test is written before the code that makes it pass
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Correct answer: DTest-driven development writes a small automated test that fails first, adds only the code needed to pass it, and then refactors. The other options place testing after the code, shift design approval to the Product Owner, or rely on stakeholder sign-off, none of which is the TDD cycle.
Question 23
A Developer notices duplicated logic in a module that makes every change risky, and the current Sprint has spare capacity. What is the best action for the team?
- ALeave the module alone, since refactoring is only appropriate after the release is complete
- BRewrite the entire system in a new language during this Sprint to remove the duplication
- CRefactor the module in small steps while keeping the automated tests passing
- DCopy the logic into a second module so that the existing code does not have to change
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Correct answer: CRefactoring in small steps, with automated tests protecting behaviour, reduces duplication and risk without changing what the system does. Waiting until after release, rewriting everything, or copying the logic only increases the risk and debt the team faces.
Question 24
Which THREE practices help a team keep technical debt under control? (Choose three.)
- ARefactoring small pieces of code regularly as part of normal work
- BPostponing all testing until a separate hardening phase at the end
- CKeeping automated tests for new changes as part of the Definition of Done
- DIntegrating code into the shared branch frequently and building it automatically
- EHiding known defects from the Sprint Review so the Increment looks complete
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Correct answer: A, C, DRegular refactoring, automated tests in the Definition of Done and frequent automated integration all keep quality high as the product changes. Postponing all testing to a hardening phase and hiding known defects both increase technical debt and make the Increment less trustworthy.
Evolving the Agile Organization (6 questions)
Question 25
What does Conway's Law say about the systems that organizations build?
- AThe most senior engineer's preferred architecture will always be the one adopted
- BSystems always outlast the teams that built them, so they never need to change and rarely need redesign
- CTeams should never exceed nine people, or the system design will fail
- DSystems tend to mirror the communication structures of the organizations that build them
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Correct answer: DConway's Law observes that the design of a system tends to reflect the communication structure of the organization that produces it. The other statements make claims about system lifetime, team size or seniority that the law does not state.
Question 26
Teams in a company stop reporting problems early because people who raise bad news have been criticized in front of others. Which concept best describes what is missing?
- APsychological safety, the shared belief that people can speak up without fear of punishment
- BFeature creep, the steady addition of requirements beyond the agreed Sprint scope
- CTechnical debt, the accumulated cost of shortcuts that make future changes slower, riskier and more expensive
- DParkinson's Law, the tendency of work to expand to fill the time available
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Correct answer: APsychological safety is the belief that one can raise concerns or mistakes without punishment, and its absence stops problems being surfaced early. The other concepts describe code quality, scope growth and time use rather than the willingness to speak up.
Question 27
A company wants teams that deliver a complete customer outcome with minimal handoffs between departments. Which organizational design fits this aim best?
- AComponent teams organized by technical layer, such as database, API and interface
- BFunctional departments that pass each piece of work to the next department in sequence
- CLong-lived, cross-functional feature teams organized around a customer value stream
- DShort-term project teams that are formed for each release and disbanded afterwards
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Correct answer: CLong-lived, cross-functional feature teams can deliver end-to-end customer outcomes with few handoffs, which is why agile organizations favour them. Layer-based component teams, handoffs between departments and disbanded project teams each add coordination steps or lose team learning.
Question 28
A team reports that its Sprint Goal was met every Sprint this quarter, but customer satisfaction scores have fallen steadily. Which response best applies evidence-based management?
- AWait for the annual review before changing anything, so the trend has time to settle
- BTrust output measures such as velocity, since they are more objective than customer surveys
- CRaise the team's planned capacity so that more story points are completed each Sprint
- DUse the satisfaction data and other outcome measures to decide what to inspect and change
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Correct answer: DEvidence-based management uses outcome data, such as customer satisfaction, to decide where to focus improvement rather than relying on output counts. Trusting velocity, raising capacity or waiting for an annual review all ignore the evidence that value is falling.
Question 29
Which TWO are key value areas used in Evidence-Based Management? (Choose two.)
- ASprint Burndown Accuracy
- BCurrent Value
- CDeveloper Utilization Rate
- DUnrealized Value
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Correct answer: B, DThe four key value areas in Evidence-Based Management are Current Value, Unrealized Value, Time to Market and Ability to Innovate. Sprint burndown accuracy and developer utilization are output or internal efficiency measures rather than key value areas.
Question 30
Information is hidden from the people who need it, and messengers who report problems are punished. In Westrum's model of organizational culture, which type does this describe?
- APathological culture, where power is protected and information is withheld
- BGenerative culture, where information flows freely and is used to improve performance
- CBureaucratic culture, where rules and departmental boundaries govern how information moves between groups
- DTransformational culture, where leaders set a shared vision that drives change
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Correct answer: AWestrum's pathological culture is power-oriented, so information is withheld and messengers are punished. Generative cultures share information freely, bureaucratic cultures are rule-oriented, and transformational culture is a leadership concept rather than a Westrum type.