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All 30 SC-300 questions with answers
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Implement authentication and access management (8 questions)
Question 1
A Conditional Access policy must block sign-ins from older clients that cannot complete modern authentication. Which condition should be configured?
- ADevice platforms set to Windows
- BSign-in risk set to high
- CLocations set to a trusted IP range
- DClient apps set to Other clients
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Correct answer: DThe Other clients option under the client apps condition targets legacy authentication protocols such as basic authentication. The other conditions select devices, networks or risk levels and do not identify legacy protocols.
Question 2
A company wants administrators to hold privileged roles only when needed, with approval and a time limit on each activation. Which Microsoft Entra feature should be used?
- APrivileged Identity Management with eligible assignments
- BPermanent role assignments protected by MFA and a sign-in risk policy
- CAccess packages with no expiry date set on the assignment policy
- DAn Azure Policy initiative that audits resource tags and settings
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Correct answer: APrivileged Identity Management makes role assignments eligible, so users activate them for a set period, optionally after approval and MFA. Permanent assignments keep standing privilege, Azure Policy governs resource configuration, and access packages without expiry remove the time limit.
Question 3
A user's credentials appear in a leaked-credentials list. The company wants Microsoft Entra to flag the risk and require a secure password change before access is granted. Which combination should be used?
- AAn Identity Protection user risk policy in Conditional Access that requires a password change
- BAn access review that removes the user automatically after the scheduled period ends without a reviewer decision
- CA privileged access workstation policy that enforces hardened device configuration
- DAn entitlement management access package that bundles group memberships and application roles for requesters
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Correct answer: AIdentity Protection detects leaked credentials as user risk, and a user risk policy in Conditional Access can require a secure password change. Access reviews and entitlement management address access rights rather than compromised credentials, and a privileged access workstation is a device pattern for administrators.
Question 4
Which self-service password reset (SSPR) setting controls how many verification methods a user must complete before resetting a password?
- ASmart lockout threshold setting
- BPassword writeback for hybrid cloud sync
- CNumber of methods required to reset
- DBanned password list custom terms
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Correct answer: CThe number of methods required to reset setting defines how many registered methods a user must verify during SSPR. Password writeback sends cloud password changes back to on-premises Active Directory, the banned password list blocks weak choices, and smart lockout limits repeated failed sign-ins.
Question 5
A company requires MFA for every administrator who signs in to the Azure management portal and CLI. Which Conditional Access configuration meets this with the narrowest scope?
- ATarget directory roles and the Microsoft Azure Management app, with the grant control Require multifactor authentication
- BRequire a compliant device for every cloud app, with the grant control applied to users, guests, and service accounts across the tenant
- CEnable security defaults for the tenant, which applies MFA registration and blocks legacy authentication
- DCreate a named location for the head office network and assign it to the policy as an included condition
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Correct answer: AA policy scoped to administrative directory roles and the Microsoft Azure Management app enforces MFA where it matters. Security defaults applies to all users and cannot be scoped to roles, a named location does not enforce MFA by itself, and a device compliance requirement is not a substitute for MFA.
Question 6
A Conditional Access authentication strength must allow only methods that resist phishing. Which method qualifies?
- AVoice call verification
- BSMS one-time code
- CFIDO2 security key
- DEmail one-time passcode
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Correct answer: CFIDO2 security keys bind the authentication to the origin domain, so a phishing site cannot reuse the response. SMS, voice and email codes can be typed into a fake sign-in page, so they do not qualify as phishing-resistant.
Question 7
A new employee has no registered authentication methods and must register a passwordless credential on the first day. Which option supports this with a short-lived sign-in credential?
- ASecurity questions
- BGuest invitation
- CPermanent password issued by the help desk
- DTemporary Access Pass
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Correct answer: DA Temporary Access Pass is a time-limited credential that lets the user register methods such as a passkey. A permanent password leaves a long-lived secret in place, security questions are not a supported method, and a guest invitation is for external collaborators.
Question 8
Which Microsoft Entra feature prevents users from choosing passwords that contain the company name or other organization-specific terms?
- ASmart lockout threshold and duration for failed sign-in attempts
- BToken lifetime policy for access and refresh token validity periods
- CMicrosoft Entra Password Protection with a custom banned password list
- DPassword writeback of cloud password changes to on-premises AD DS
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Correct answer: CEntra password protection checks new passwords against a global banned list and a custom list that can include company terms. Password writeback syncs changes to on-premises Active Directory, token lifetime policies control token validity, and smart lockout limits failed sign-in attempts.
Implement identities in Microsoft Entra ID (8 questions)
Question 9
A company with an on-premises Active Directory wants users to sign in to Microsoft Entra ID with their on-premises passwords, and wants passwords validated on-premises without storing password hashes in the cloud. Which Microsoft Entra Connect sign-in method should be configured?
- APassword hash synchronization
- BPass-through authentication
- CActive Directory Federation Services
- DSeamless single sign-on only
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Correct answer: BPass-through authentication sends each sign-in to an on-premises agent that validates the password against Active Directory, so no password hashes are stored in the cloud. Password hash synchronization stores hashes in Entra ID, and AD FS needs a federation farm the scenario does not ask for. Seamless SSO is a single sign-on add-on that works alongside a sign-in method rather than replacing it.
Question 10
A partner organization's users are invited to the tenant as guests. The security team wants guests to see only their own profile and memberships, not other users or groups. Which external collaboration setting should be applied?
- AGuest users can read group memberships, including nested groups and their owners
- BGuest user access is restricted to properties and memberships of their own directory objects
- CGuest users can create security groups and add members to them in the directory
- DGuest users have the same access as members, including read access to user profiles and group objects alike
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Correct answer: BThe guest user access restrictions setting limits guests to their own directory objects, so they cannot enumerate other users or groups. Giving guests member-level access exposes much more of the directory. The other options grant broader rather than narrower access and do not meet the requirement.
Question 11
A Microsoft Entra group must automatically contain every user whose department attribute is Sales. Which membership type and rule should be used?
- AAssigned group with the Sales users added manually
- BDynamic user group with the rule user.department -eq 'Sales'
- CDynamic device group with the rule device.department -eq 'Sales'
- DMicrosoft 365 group with a nested Sales group
Show answer and explanationHide answer
Correct answer: BA dynamic user group evaluates membership from user attributes, so new and departing users are added and removed automatically. Assigned membership needs manual upkeep, and dynamic device groups evaluate device attributes rather than user attributes. Nesting does not populate members from an attribute.
Question 12
Which two DNS record types can be used to verify ownership of a custom domain in Microsoft Entra ID? (Choose two.)
- AAAAA record
- BPTR record
- CSRV record
- DTXT record
- EMX record
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Correct answer: D, EEntra ID accepts a TXT or an MX record carrying the value it generates to prove domain ownership. AAAA records map hostnames to IPv6 addresses, PTR records map addresses back to names, and SRV records advertise services, so none of those verify a domain.
Question 13
A help desk technician must reset passwords and manage user accounts in Microsoft Entra ID, but must not change Conditional Access policies or tenant security settings. Which built-in role fits best under least privilege?
- AGlobal Reader
- BGlobal Administrator
- CUser Administrator
- DSecurity Administrator
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Correct answer: CUser Administrator creates and manages users and groups, including resetting passwords for non-administrators, without rights over Conditional Access. Global Administrator is far broader than needed, Security Administrator can change security policy, and Global Reader can only view configuration.
Question 14
After an external collaborator is invited to the tenant, which userType value does Microsoft Entra ID assign to that account?
- AMember
- BViewer
- CExternal
- DGuest
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Correct answer: DInvited B2B collaboration users are created with userType set to Guest, which is the value that guest restrictions and guest-focused access reviews target. Member is for internal users, and External and Viewer are not userType values in Entra ID.
Question 15
An administrator must find out why a user received repeated MFA prompts and where those sign-in attempts came from. Which log should be reviewed first?
- AProvisioning logs for SCIM applications
- BAzure Activity log for subscription resources
- CAudit logs in Microsoft Entra ID
- DSign-in logs in Microsoft Entra ID
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Correct answer: DSign-in logs show each authentication attempt, including MFA results, location, device and the Conditional Access policies applied. Audit logs record directory changes, provisioning logs track identity sync to other apps, and the Azure Activity log covers resource management operations.
Question 16
A SaaS application needs SAML single sign-on for its users. Which object does the administrator configure in Microsoft Entra ID for this?
- AEnterprise application
- BAdministrative unit
- CDynamic group
- DAzure Lighthouse delegation
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Correct answer: ASAML sign-in to a SaaS application is configured through an enterprise application, which holds the single sign-on settings and user assignments. Administrative units scope administration, dynamic groups hold memberships, and Azure Lighthouse delegates Azure resource management.
Plan and implement identity governance (7 questions)
Question 17
Which two features are part of Microsoft Entra ID Governance? (Choose two.)
- AAccess reviews
- BEntitlement management
- CAzure Firewall
- DAzure Bastion
- EMicrosoft Defender for Endpoint
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Correct answer: A, BAccess reviews and entitlement management are identity governance capabilities in Entra ID Governance. Azure Firewall, Azure Bastion and Defender for Endpoint are network, remote access and endpoint security products, not governance features.
Question 18
External consultants need access to a project's resources for 90 days, with an approval step before access is granted and automatic removal at expiry. Which feature should be used?
- ADynamic group based on the user's department attribute and membership rule evaluation in Entra ID
- BEntitlement management access package with an approval policy and expiration
- CAn Azure Policy assignment that audits resource tags and enforces SKUs
- DA shared mailbox with delegated Send As and Full Access permissions granted to a team
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Correct answer: BAccess packages in entitlement management bundle resources, add request and approval policies, and remove access when it expires. Dynamic groups use attributes rather than approvals and expiry, shared mailboxes do not provide that governance, and Azure Policy governs resource configuration.
Question 19
A quarterly review must confirm that remaining guest users still need access. If a reviewer does not respond, access must be removed automatically. Which configuration meets this?
- AA recurring access review with the setting to remove access when reviewers do not respond
- BA Terms of use policy shown at each sign-in to confirm guests have read it
- CA one-time access review with email reminders sent to reviewers each week
- DA Conditional Access block that applies to every guest user account regardless of sponsor status
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Correct answer: AA recurring access review repeats on a schedule, and its no-response setting can remove access automatically. A one-time review does not recur, a blanket block is not a review, and Terms of use does not confirm ongoing need.
Question 20
A company requires every employee to accept its acceptable use statement before accessing corporate apps, with each acceptance recorded. Which feature should be configured?
- AA privacy statement link shown in each application's sign-in page and footer
- BAn Identity Protection user risk policy for risky sign-ins
- CAn Azure Policy that requires resource tags and owners
- DMicrosoft Entra Terms of Use with a Conditional Access policy
Show answer and explanationHide answer
Correct answer: DEntra Terms of Use presents the document and records each acceptance, and a Conditional Access policy enforces it before access. A link in an application is neither enforced nor recorded, Azure Policy governs resources, and Identity Protection handles risk rather than acceptance.
Question 21
An access review must let each group owner decide whether members of their group should keep access. Which reviewer type should be selected?
- ASecurity operations mailbox
- BGuest users
- CGlobal Reader role holders
- DGroup owners
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Correct answer: DSetting the reviewer to group owners lets the people responsible for each group approve or deny its members. A shared mailbox and role holders are not the right reviewers, and guests should not decide on their own or others' access.
Question 22
A company wants administrators to activate an Azure Owner role only after a manager approves the request, and every activation must include a written reason. Which Privileged Identity Management setting covers the reason?
- ARequire justification on activation
- BRequire multifactor authentication on assignment
- CRequire a ticket number only
- DMaximum activation duration
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Correct answer: ARequire justification on activation makes the requester enter a reason, which is recorded in the audit history. MFA on assignment and the duration setting control other aspects of activation, and ticket numbers are optional rather than a PIM requirement.
Question 23
Which two capabilities does Privileged Identity Management provide for Azure resource roles? (Choose two.)
- AApproval workflow before activation
- BAutomatic deletion of unused virtual machines
- CAzure Firewall rule management
- DStorage account key rotation
- EEligible role activation that requires MFA
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Correct answer: A, EPIM can require MFA and approval before an eligible role is activated. Deleting virtual machines, managing firewall rules and rotating storage keys are resource operations that PIM does not perform.
Plan and implement workload identities (7 questions)
Question 24
An Azure Function must read secrets from Azure Key Vault without storing any credentials in code or app settings. Which approach is recommended?
- AEmbed the Key Vault access key in the function source code and configuration
- BCreate a service principal and store its client secret in app settings for the function
- CEnable a system-assigned managed identity on the function and grant it access to the Key Vault
- DUse a shared administrator account with Global Administrator rights in the function code
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Correct answer: CA managed identity gives the function an Entra identity whose credentials Azure manages, so no secret is stored. The other options rely on stored secrets or shared accounts, which is exactly what this scenario is meant to avoid.
Question 25
Which two credential types can be added to a Microsoft Entra app registration so that its service principal can authenticate? (Choose two.)
- AKerberos keytab
- BClient secret
- CCertificate
- DSSH public key
- EPGP key
Show answer and explanationHide answer
Correct answer: B, CApp registrations accept client secrets and X.509 certificates for client credentials flows. SSH public keys, PGP keys and Kerberos keytabs are used by other systems and are not accepted by app registrations.
Question 26
A GitHub Actions workflow must deploy to Azure without storing a long-lived client secret. Which setup is recommended?
- AA personal access token from a developer account with repository write scope, stored as a repository secret for the job
- BWorkload identity federation with a federated identity credential that trusts the GitHub OIDC issuer
- CA publish profile copied into the repository as a plaintext file under the .github folder
- DA client secret stored in a GitHub repository secret with no scheduled expiration or rotation
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Correct answer: BWorkload identity federation lets the workflow exchange a short-lived GitHub OIDC token for a Microsoft Entra token, so no secret is stored. The other options rely on long-lived secrets or personal credentials, which are harder to rotate and audit.
Question 27
A third-party daemon must call Microsoft Graph to read directory data without a signed-in user. Which permission type should be granted and consented?
- AGlobal Administrator role assigned to the app
- BAn Azure CLI session on the server
- CApplication permissions with admin consent
- DDelegated permissions with user sign-in
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Correct answer: CApplication permissions let a service call Graph with its own identity, and they require admin consent. Delegated permissions act on behalf of a signed-in user, and a role or CLI session is not a proper app identity for this purpose.
Question 28
An Azure virtual machine needs an identity to read secrets from Key Vault. The identity should be deleted automatically when the VM is deleted. Which managed identity type should be used?
- AUser-assigned managed identity
- BSystem-assigned managed identity
- CAzure AD B2C local account
- DService principal with a client secret
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Correct answer: BA system-assigned managed identity has the same lifecycle as the resource that owns it, so it is removed with the VM. A user-assigned identity exists independently, and a service principal with a secret or a B2C account does not match this lifecycle.
Question 29
A deployment pipeline must pull container images from Azure Container Registry using a managed identity, with the fewest permissions possible. Which role should be assigned?
- AAcrPull
- BContributor
- CReader
- DOwner
Show answer and explanationHide answer
Correct answer: AAcrPull grants only the rights needed to pull images, which matches least privilege. Contributor and Owner grant far broader management rights, and Reader cannot pull images from the registry.
Question 30
Users must request access to an enterprise application that requires administrator consent. The request should go to an administrator who can approve it. Which feature should be configured?
- AAdmin consent request workflow
- BConditional Access named locations
- CAccess package catalog
- DTerms of use
Show answer and explanationHide answer
Correct answer: AThe admin consent request workflow lets users ask for access to an app that needs admin consent, and it routes the request to reviewers. The other features control network conditions, bundled resources or acceptance of terms, not consent.
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