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Free SC-900 practice test: 30 questions with answers
30 original questions for Microsoft Security, Compliance, and Identity Fundamentals, drawn from every topic area. Answer each one to see whether you got it right and why. No sign-up.
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All 30 SC-900 questions with answers
The same questions as the test above, grouped by exam topic. Open any question to see the answer and explanation.
Describe the concepts of security, compliance, and identity (8 questions)
Question 1
Which security principle means that users and services receive only the access they need to do their work?
- ALeast privilege
- BZero-day patching
- CData residency
- DSingle sign-on
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Correct answer: ALeast privilege limits access to the minimum required for a task, which reduces the impact of compromise. Single sign-on is an authentication convenience, data residency concerns location, and zero-day patching is a response to vulnerabilities.
Question 2
Which term describes the practice of verifying an identity explicitly using multiple signals, rather than trusting a network location?
- AFlat network
- BAir gap
- CZero Trust
- DPerimeter-only security
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Correct answer: CZero Trust verifies every access request explicitly using identity, device health, and other signals, regardless of network location. Air gaps, perimeter-only defence, and flat networks rely on location trust.
Question 3
Which concept describes the process of confirming who a user is?
- AAuthentication
- BAuditing
- CAuthorization
- DEncryption at rest
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Correct answer: AAuthentication verifies identity. Authorization decides what an authenticated identity can do, auditing records activity, and encryption at rest protects stored data.
Question 4
Which concept describes deciding what an authenticated user is permitted to access?
- AAuthorization
- BAuthentication
- CBackup
- DReplication
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Correct answer: AAuthorization determines permissions after identity is verified. Authentication confirms identity, while backup and replication are data protection functions.
Question 5
An organization wants to show that its handling of personal data follows a regulation. Which concept does this describe?
- AEncryption key rotation
- BCaching
- CLoad balancing
- DCompliance
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Correct answer: DCompliance means meeting external regulations or internal standards and demonstrating that you do so. Key rotation, load balancing, and caching are technical practices that may support compliance but do not describe it.
Question 6
Which type of security control is designed to detect and respond to an attack that is already underway?
- AWritten policy documents and procedure manuals describe the intended security baseline
- BPhysical locks and steel cabinets fitted to the server room and building entrances
- CPreventive controls such as firewalls and access rules that stop attacks before they start
- DDetective and responsive controls, such as monitoring and incident response
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Correct answer: DDetective and responsive controls identify and respond to active threats, complementing preventive measures. Preventive controls stop attacks before they happen, and locks and documents do not detect active attacks by themselves.
Question 7
Which statement about defence in depth is correct?
- AA single strong control, such as a well-configured firewall, is sufficient to protect the entire estate
- BLayers are unnecessary in cloud services because the provider secures the entire underlying platform
- CMultiple layers of security controls reduce the chance that one failure exposes everything
- DIt means securing the network perimeter with a hardened boundary firewall, while internal hosts are trusted
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Correct answer: CDefence in depth uses several layers so that a single failure does not expose all data. One control is rarely sufficient, cloud services still need layers, and perimeter-only security is a single layer.
Question 8
A shared password is used by several employees for a sensitive system. Which principle is violated?
- AWeb page load latency reduction
- BHardware redundancy planning
- CHorizontal scalability target
- DIndividual accountability
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Correct answer: DShared credentials make it impossible to know which person performed an action. Redundancy, scalability, and latency are not the principle at stake.
Describe the capabilities of Microsoft Entra (8 questions)
Question 9
Which Microsoft Entra capability allows a user to sign in once and access multiple applications without signing in again to each?
- ASingle sign-on
- BDynamic groups
- CAccess reviews
- DPassword writeback
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Correct answer: ASingle sign-on lets a user authenticate once and access many applications with that session. Password writeback syncs password changes, dynamic groups manage membership, and access reviews check access.
Question 10
Which Microsoft Entra feature requires an additional verification step, such as an authenticator app, before granting access?
- ADevice name tags
- BEntra ID Free directory only
- CGroup naming rules
- DMulti-factor authentication
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Correct answer: DMulti-factor authentication adds a second verification factor to the sign-in. Directory editions, naming rules, and device tags do not add a verification step.
Question 11
Which Microsoft Entra feature evaluates sign-in conditions such as user, location, device, and risk to decide whether access is allowed?
- AOffice macros
- BConditional access
- CA file share permission
- DA printer queue
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Correct answer: BConditional access evaluates signals such as user, location, device state, and risk to allow, block, or require controls. Macros, printer queues, and file share permissions do not make sign-in decisions.
Question 12
Which Microsoft Entra capability manages the lifecycle of guest users who are external to the organization?
- APrinter management
- BExternal identities and B2B collaboration
- CDevice encryption only
- DMailbox quotas
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Correct answer: BExternal identities and B2B collaboration manage guest access to shared resources. Printer management, device encryption, and mailbox quotas are different areas.
Question 13
Which Microsoft Entra feature provides time-limited, just-in-time activation of privileged roles with approval and audit?
- APrinter sharing
- BPassword reset registration
- CShared mailbox delegation
- DPrivileged Identity Management
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Correct answer: DPrivileged Identity Management provides just-in-time, time-bound role activation with approvals and auditing. Password registration, printer sharing, and mailbox delegation do not manage privileged roles this way.
Question 14
Which Microsoft Entra capability periodically asks reviewers to confirm whether people still need their access?
- APasswordless sign-in
- BAccess reviews
- CSelf-service password reset
- DHybrid join
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Correct answer: BAccess reviews have reviewers confirm continued need for access, which removes unnecessary permissions. Password reset, hybrid join, and passwordless sign-in are different capabilities.
Question 15
Which Microsoft Entra capability detects sign-ins that appear risky and can respond automatically?
- AMicrosoft Teams chat
- BExcel formulas
- CIdentity Protection
- DWord styles
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Correct answer: CIdentity Protection detects risky sign-ins and users, and it can trigger policies that require stronger verification or password change. The other products do not detect identity risk.
Question 16
Which sign-in method lets users sign in without a password, using a device-bound credential that is resistant to phishing?
- APasskeys or Windows Hello for Business
- BA reused password with a longer length
- CA password written on a sticky note
- DSharing a PIN with a colleague
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Correct answer: APasskeys and Windows Hello for Business use device-bound cryptographic credentials that resist phishing. Longer reused passwords, written notes, and shared PINs remain vulnerable.
Describe the capabilities of Microsoft security solutions (7 questions)
Question 17
Which Azure service provides a cloud-native SIEM and SOAR platform to collect logs, detect threats, and automate responses?
- AAzure CDN
- BMicrosoft Sentinel
- CAzure Blob Storage
- DAzure Backup
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Correct answer: BMicrosoft Sentinel collects security data, detects threats, and automates responses with playbooks. Backup, CDN, and Blob Storage do not provide SIEM or SOAR capabilities.
Question 18
Which Microsoft service protects Azure resources against volumetric denial-of-service attacks at the network layer?
- AAzure Cost Management
- BAzure Monitor
- CAzure Key Vault
- DAzure DDoS Protection
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Correct answer: DAzure DDoS Protection defends public endpoints against network-layer attacks that overwhelm capacity. Key Vault stores secrets, Monitor collects telemetry, and Cost Management tracks spending.
Question 19
Which Microsoft service unifies security posture management and workload protection across Azure, hybrid, and multicloud resources?
- AMicrosoft Defender for Cloud
- BMicrosoft Project for schedules
- CMicrosoft Lists for team trackers
- DMicrosoft Excel for budget sheets
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Correct answer: ADefender for Cloud provides security posture recommendations and threat protection for workloads across environments. Excel, Project, and Lists are productivity tools.
Question 20
Which Microsoft Defender product protects endpoints such as Windows laptops by detecting and responding to threats?
- AMicrosoft Defender for Cloud Apps only
- BMicrosoft Defender for Office 365 only
- CMicrosoft Defender for Identity only
- DMicrosoft Defender for Endpoint
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Correct answer: DDefender for Endpoint provides endpoint detection and response on devices. The others focus on cloud apps, identity signals, and email and collaboration threats.
Question 21
Which Microsoft Defender product monitors on-premises Active Directory for suspicious identity activity?
- AMicrosoft Defender for Office 365 only
- BAzure Firewall
- CMicrosoft Defender for Endpoint only
- DMicrosoft Defender for Identity
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Correct answer: DDefender for Identity analyses on-premises Active Directory traffic and events to detect identity-based attacks. The other products cover endpoints, email, or network filtering.
Question 22
Which Microsoft service filters email and collaboration content to protect users from phishing and malware?
- AAzure Storage Explorer for file shares
- BMicrosoft Defender for Office 365
- CAzure Load Balancer probes
- DAzure DNS name resolution
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Correct answer: BDefender for Office 365 protects email and collaboration tools with filtering, safe links, and safe attachments. Load balancers, DNS, and storage tools do not filter messages.
Question 23
Which Azure network service is a managed, stateful firewall that filters traffic between virtual networks and the internet?
- AAzure Front Door only
- BAzure Blob Storage
- CAzure Lab Services
- DAzure Firewall
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Correct answer: DAzure Firewall is a managed stateful firewall with centralized rules for network traffic. Front Door is a global web entry point, Blob Storage stores data, and Lab Services provides labs.
Describe the capabilities of Microsoft compliance solutions (7 questions)
Question 24
Which Microsoft Purview capability classifies and protects documents and emails by applying labels that travel with the content?
- ACalendar meeting tags
- BSensitivity labels
- CNetwork printer labels
- DTeams chat emoji packs
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Correct answer: BSensitivity labels classify content and can apply protections such as encryption and access restrictions that travel with it. Printer labels, calendar tags, and emojis do not protect content.
Question 25
Which Microsoft Purview capability detects and blocks sharing of sensitive information, such as credit card numbers, outside the organization?
- AAudit log search of user events
- BData loss prevention (DLP) policies
- CRetention labels and time periods
- DCompliance Manager assessment
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Correct answer: BDLP policies detect sensitive information types and block or warn when they are shared inappropriately. Retention labels manage how long content is kept, Compliance Manager assesses controls, and audit search looks at activity records.
Question 26
An organization must keep emails for seven years to meet a legal requirement, even if users delete them. Which capability fits best?
- ASensitivity labels that hide mail content
- BTurning off Exchange mailbox backups
- CRetention policies and retention labels
- DPrinting the emails each year for paper files
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Correct answer: CRetention policies and labels keep content for a defined period and can preserve deleted items as required. Hiding content, printing, and turning off backups do not meet a legal retention need.
Question 27
Which Microsoft Purview capability helps legal teams search and collect relevant content across mailboxes and sites for a case?
- AeDiscovery
- BAzure Batch
- CMicrosoft Forms
- DMicrosoft Lists
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Correct answer: AeDiscovery searches and preserves content relevant to legal matters across Microsoft 365 sources. Batch, Forms, and Lists do not support legal discovery.
Question 28
Which Microsoft Purview tool provides a compliance score and recommended improvement actions based on regulations and standards?
- AMicrosoft Teams chat
- BAzure Cost Analysis
- CCompliance Manager
- DAzure DNS
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Correct answer: CCompliance Manager assesses controls against regulatory frameworks and provides a score with improvement actions. DNS, chat, and cost analysis are unrelated to compliance assessment.
Question 29
Which Microsoft Purview feature records user and admin activity across Microsoft 365 services for investigations and compliance reviews?
- AMicrosoft Forms for team surveys
- BAudit (Standard or Premium)
- CMicrosoft Paint for image editing
- DMicrosoft Bookings for clinics
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Correct answer: BAudit records activity events across services for investigations and compliance. Paint, Bookings, and Forms are productivity applications.
Question 30
Which Microsoft Purview capability helps detect risky user behaviour, such as an employee taking sensitive data to a personal account, and alerts investigators?
- AInsider risk management
- BAzure Load Balancer probes
- CCalendar sync across devices
- DPrinter fleet tracking
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Correct answer: AInsider risk management identifies risky activity patterns such as data exfiltration indicators and surfaces them for investigation. Load balancers, printers, and calendar sync are unrelated.