All Microsoft exams

Free SC-900 practice test: 30 questions with answers

30 original questions for Microsoft Security, Compliance, and Identity Fundamentals, drawn from every topic area. Answer each one to see whether you got it right and why. No sign-up.

Free questions
30
Full bank
100 questions

SC-900 exam guide: topics, cost and format

All 30 SC-900 questions with answers

The same questions as the test above, grouped by exam topic. Open any question to see the answer and explanation.

Describe the concepts of security, compliance, and identity (8 questions)

  1. Question 1

    Which security principle means that users and services receive only the access they need to do their work?

    1. ALeast privilege
    2. BZero-day patching
    3. CData residency
    4. DSingle sign-on
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: A

    Least privilege limits access to the minimum required for a task, which reduces the impact of compromise. Single sign-on is an authentication convenience, data residency concerns location, and zero-day patching is a response to vulnerabilities.

  2. Question 2

    Which term describes the practice of verifying an identity explicitly using multiple signals, rather than trusting a network location?

    1. AFlat network
    2. BAir gap
    3. CZero Trust
    4. DPerimeter-only security
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: C

    Zero Trust verifies every access request explicitly using identity, device health, and other signals, regardless of network location. Air gaps, perimeter-only defence, and flat networks rely on location trust.

  3. Question 3

    Which concept describes the process of confirming who a user is?

    1. AAuthentication
    2. BAuditing
    3. CAuthorization
    4. DEncryption at rest
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: A

    Authentication verifies identity. Authorization decides what an authenticated identity can do, auditing records activity, and encryption at rest protects stored data.

  4. Question 4

    Which concept describes deciding what an authenticated user is permitted to access?

    1. AAuthorization
    2. BAuthentication
    3. CBackup
    4. DReplication
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: A

    Authorization determines permissions after identity is verified. Authentication confirms identity, while backup and replication are data protection functions.

  5. Question 5

    An organization wants to show that its handling of personal data follows a regulation. Which concept does this describe?

    1. AEncryption key rotation
    2. BCaching
    3. CLoad balancing
    4. DCompliance
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: D

    Compliance means meeting external regulations or internal standards and demonstrating that you do so. Key rotation, load balancing, and caching are technical practices that may support compliance but do not describe it.

  6. Question 6

    Which type of security control is designed to detect and respond to an attack that is already underway?

    1. AWritten policy documents and procedure manuals describe the intended security baseline
    2. BPhysical locks and steel cabinets fitted to the server room and building entrances
    3. CPreventive controls such as firewalls and access rules that stop attacks before they start
    4. DDetective and responsive controls, such as monitoring and incident response
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: D

    Detective and responsive controls identify and respond to active threats, complementing preventive measures. Preventive controls stop attacks before they happen, and locks and documents do not detect active attacks by themselves.

  7. Question 7

    Which statement about defence in depth is correct?

    1. AA single strong control, such as a well-configured firewall, is sufficient to protect the entire estate
    2. BLayers are unnecessary in cloud services because the provider secures the entire underlying platform
    3. CMultiple layers of security controls reduce the chance that one failure exposes everything
    4. DIt means securing the network perimeter with a hardened boundary firewall, while internal hosts are trusted
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: C

    Defence in depth uses several layers so that a single failure does not expose all data. One control is rarely sufficient, cloud services still need layers, and perimeter-only security is a single layer.

  8. Question 8

    A shared password is used by several employees for a sensitive system. Which principle is violated?

    1. AWeb page load latency reduction
    2. BHardware redundancy planning
    3. CHorizontal scalability target
    4. DIndividual accountability
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: D

    Shared credentials make it impossible to know which person performed an action. Redundancy, scalability, and latency are not the principle at stake.

Describe the capabilities of Microsoft Entra (8 questions)

  1. Question 9

    Which Microsoft Entra capability allows a user to sign in once and access multiple applications without signing in again to each?

    1. ASingle sign-on
    2. BDynamic groups
    3. CAccess reviews
    4. DPassword writeback
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: A

    Single sign-on lets a user authenticate once and access many applications with that session. Password writeback syncs password changes, dynamic groups manage membership, and access reviews check access.

  2. Question 10

    Which Microsoft Entra feature requires an additional verification step, such as an authenticator app, before granting access?

    1. ADevice name tags
    2. BEntra ID Free directory only
    3. CGroup naming rules
    4. DMulti-factor authentication
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: D

    Multi-factor authentication adds a second verification factor to the sign-in. Directory editions, naming rules, and device tags do not add a verification step.

  3. Question 11

    Which Microsoft Entra feature evaluates sign-in conditions such as user, location, device, and risk to decide whether access is allowed?

    1. AOffice macros
    2. BConditional access
    3. CA file share permission
    4. DA printer queue
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: B

    Conditional access evaluates signals such as user, location, device state, and risk to allow, block, or require controls. Macros, printer queues, and file share permissions do not make sign-in decisions.

  4. Question 12

    Which Microsoft Entra capability manages the lifecycle of guest users who are external to the organization?

    1. APrinter management
    2. BExternal identities and B2B collaboration
    3. CDevice encryption only
    4. DMailbox quotas
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: B

    External identities and B2B collaboration manage guest access to shared resources. Printer management, device encryption, and mailbox quotas are different areas.

  5. Question 13

    Which Microsoft Entra feature provides time-limited, just-in-time activation of privileged roles with approval and audit?

    1. APrinter sharing
    2. BPassword reset registration
    3. CShared mailbox delegation
    4. DPrivileged Identity Management
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: D

    Privileged Identity Management provides just-in-time, time-bound role activation with approvals and auditing. Password registration, printer sharing, and mailbox delegation do not manage privileged roles this way.

  6. Question 14

    Which Microsoft Entra capability periodically asks reviewers to confirm whether people still need their access?

    1. APasswordless sign-in
    2. BAccess reviews
    3. CSelf-service password reset
    4. DHybrid join
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: B

    Access reviews have reviewers confirm continued need for access, which removes unnecessary permissions. Password reset, hybrid join, and passwordless sign-in are different capabilities.

  7. Question 15

    Which Microsoft Entra capability detects sign-ins that appear risky and can respond automatically?

    1. AMicrosoft Teams chat
    2. BExcel formulas
    3. CIdentity Protection
    4. DWord styles
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: C

    Identity Protection detects risky sign-ins and users, and it can trigger policies that require stronger verification or password change. The other products do not detect identity risk.

  8. Question 16

    Which sign-in method lets users sign in without a password, using a device-bound credential that is resistant to phishing?

    1. APasskeys or Windows Hello for Business
    2. BA reused password with a longer length
    3. CA password written on a sticky note
    4. DSharing a PIN with a colleague
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: A

    Passkeys and Windows Hello for Business use device-bound cryptographic credentials that resist phishing. Longer reused passwords, written notes, and shared PINs remain vulnerable.

Describe the capabilities of Microsoft security solutions (7 questions)

  1. Question 17

    Which Azure service provides a cloud-native SIEM and SOAR platform to collect logs, detect threats, and automate responses?

    1. AAzure CDN
    2. BMicrosoft Sentinel
    3. CAzure Blob Storage
    4. DAzure Backup
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: B

    Microsoft Sentinel collects security data, detects threats, and automates responses with playbooks. Backup, CDN, and Blob Storage do not provide SIEM or SOAR capabilities.

  2. Question 18

    Which Microsoft service protects Azure resources against volumetric denial-of-service attacks at the network layer?

    1. AAzure Cost Management
    2. BAzure Monitor
    3. CAzure Key Vault
    4. DAzure DDoS Protection
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: D

    Azure DDoS Protection defends public endpoints against network-layer attacks that overwhelm capacity. Key Vault stores secrets, Monitor collects telemetry, and Cost Management tracks spending.

  3. Question 19

    Which Microsoft service unifies security posture management and workload protection across Azure, hybrid, and multicloud resources?

    1. AMicrosoft Defender for Cloud
    2. BMicrosoft Project for schedules
    3. CMicrosoft Lists for team trackers
    4. DMicrosoft Excel for budget sheets
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: A

    Defender for Cloud provides security posture recommendations and threat protection for workloads across environments. Excel, Project, and Lists are productivity tools.

  4. Question 20

    Which Microsoft Defender product protects endpoints such as Windows laptops by detecting and responding to threats?

    1. AMicrosoft Defender for Cloud Apps only
    2. BMicrosoft Defender for Office 365 only
    3. CMicrosoft Defender for Identity only
    4. DMicrosoft Defender for Endpoint
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: D

    Defender for Endpoint provides endpoint detection and response on devices. The others focus on cloud apps, identity signals, and email and collaboration threats.

  5. Question 21

    Which Microsoft Defender product monitors on-premises Active Directory for suspicious identity activity?

    1. AMicrosoft Defender for Office 365 only
    2. BAzure Firewall
    3. CMicrosoft Defender for Endpoint only
    4. DMicrosoft Defender for Identity
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: D

    Defender for Identity analyses on-premises Active Directory traffic and events to detect identity-based attacks. The other products cover endpoints, email, or network filtering.

  6. Question 22

    Which Microsoft service filters email and collaboration content to protect users from phishing and malware?

    1. AAzure Storage Explorer for file shares
    2. BMicrosoft Defender for Office 365
    3. CAzure Load Balancer probes
    4. DAzure DNS name resolution
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: B

    Defender for Office 365 protects email and collaboration tools with filtering, safe links, and safe attachments. Load balancers, DNS, and storage tools do not filter messages.

  7. Question 23

    Which Azure network service is a managed, stateful firewall that filters traffic between virtual networks and the internet?

    1. AAzure Front Door only
    2. BAzure Blob Storage
    3. CAzure Lab Services
    4. DAzure Firewall
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: D

    Azure Firewall is a managed stateful firewall with centralized rules for network traffic. Front Door is a global web entry point, Blob Storage stores data, and Lab Services provides labs.

Describe the capabilities of Microsoft compliance solutions (7 questions)

  1. Question 24

    Which Microsoft Purview capability classifies and protects documents and emails by applying labels that travel with the content?

    1. ACalendar meeting tags
    2. BSensitivity labels
    3. CNetwork printer labels
    4. DTeams chat emoji packs
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: B

    Sensitivity labels classify content and can apply protections such as encryption and access restrictions that travel with it. Printer labels, calendar tags, and emojis do not protect content.

  2. Question 25

    Which Microsoft Purview capability detects and blocks sharing of sensitive information, such as credit card numbers, outside the organization?

    1. AAudit log search of user events
    2. BData loss prevention (DLP) policies
    3. CRetention labels and time periods
    4. DCompliance Manager assessment
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: B

    DLP policies detect sensitive information types and block or warn when they are shared inappropriately. Retention labels manage how long content is kept, Compliance Manager assesses controls, and audit search looks at activity records.

  3. Question 26

    An organization must keep emails for seven years to meet a legal requirement, even if users delete them. Which capability fits best?

    1. ASensitivity labels that hide mail content
    2. BTurning off Exchange mailbox backups
    3. CRetention policies and retention labels
    4. DPrinting the emails each year for paper files
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: C

    Retention policies and labels keep content for a defined period and can preserve deleted items as required. Hiding content, printing, and turning off backups do not meet a legal retention need.

  4. Question 27

    Which Microsoft Purview capability helps legal teams search and collect relevant content across mailboxes and sites for a case?

    1. AeDiscovery
    2. BAzure Batch
    3. CMicrosoft Forms
    4. DMicrosoft Lists
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: A

    eDiscovery searches and preserves content relevant to legal matters across Microsoft 365 sources. Batch, Forms, and Lists do not support legal discovery.

  5. Question 28

    Which Microsoft Purview tool provides a compliance score and recommended improvement actions based on regulations and standards?

    1. AMicrosoft Teams chat
    2. BAzure Cost Analysis
    3. CCompliance Manager
    4. DAzure DNS
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: C

    Compliance Manager assesses controls against regulatory frameworks and provides a score with improvement actions. DNS, chat, and cost analysis are unrelated to compliance assessment.

  6. Question 29

    Which Microsoft Purview feature records user and admin activity across Microsoft 365 services for investigations and compliance reviews?

    1. AMicrosoft Forms for team surveys
    2. BAudit (Standard or Premium)
    3. CMicrosoft Paint for image editing
    4. DMicrosoft Bookings for clinics
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: B

    Audit records activity events across services for investigations and compliance. Paint, Bookings, and Forms are productivity applications.

  7. Question 30

    Which Microsoft Purview capability helps detect risky user behaviour, such as an employee taking sensitive data to a personal account, and alerts investigators?

    1. AInsider risk management
    2. BAzure Load Balancer probes
    3. CCalendar sync across devices
    4. DPrinter fleet tracking
    Show answer and explanation
    Correct answer: A

    Insider risk management identifies risky activity patterns such as data exfiltration indicators and surfaces them for investigation. Load balancers, printers, and calendar sync are unrelated.